• Re: Copyright on NHS medical scans?

    From Adam Funk@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 13:52:13 2023
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in
    certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings.

    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track'
    meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means
    'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of
    the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

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  • From Roger Hayter@21:1/5 to Adam Funk on Tue Oct 17 14:21:53 2023
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 13:52:13 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>
    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in
    certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track'
    meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means
    'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of
    the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily
    something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    I suggest you go back and look at the Auriol Gray thread, all several hundred posts of it. And probably a similar number in unnm.


    --
    Roger Hayter

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  • From Tim Jackson@21:1/5 to All on Tue Oct 17 15:51:56 2023
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 18:29:55 +0100, Norman Wells wrote...

    No question about it when 'original' just meant 'new' as in the UK
    Copyright Act.

    But "original" didn't just mean "new". And your real beef isn't about
    that anyway. It's about whether either term implies an "intellectual
    creation".

    "New" is a requirement for patents, rather than copyright. To be
    patentable, an invention must be new, i.e. not previously known to the
    public.

    "Original" has, and has always had, a slightly different (but often overlapping) meaning. The idea behind a work can be as old as the
    hills, but it must be expressed in a way that is original to the author.
    This expression might not always be very new, as long as it hasn't been
    copied from elsewhere:

    "It is possible for authors and creators to create, have rights in and
    exploit a work very similar to the creation of another author or creator without infringing copyright, as long as the work of another author or
    creator was not copied." https://www.wipo.int/edocs/pubdocs/en/wipo_pub_909_2016.pdf

    --
    Tim Jackson
    news@timjackson.invalid
    (Change '.invalid' to '.plus.com' to reply direct)

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  • From Adam Funk@21:1/5 to Roger Hayter on Tue Oct 17 15:45:36 2023
    On 2023-10-17, Roger Hayter wrote:

    On 17 Oct 2023 at 13:52:13 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>
    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in
    certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track' >>>>>> meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means
    'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    I suggest you go back and look at the Auriol Gray thread, all several hundred posts of it. And probably a similar number in unnm.

    For the record, I'm sure Mark is right on this one, but you're making
    me start to regret my curiosity as to why.

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  • From Mark Goodge@21:1/5 to Adam Funk on Tue Oct 17 16:38:00 2023
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 13:52:13 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of
    the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily
    something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, it's in case law. Which, of course, Norman only accepts when the judges agree with him.

    Mark

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  • From Roger Hayter@21:1/5 to Adam Funk on Tue Oct 17 16:00:46 2023
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 15:45:36 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Roger Hayter wrote:

    On 17 Oct 2023 at 13:52:13 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote: >>
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>
    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in >>>>>>> certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track' >>>>>>> meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means >>>>> 'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a >>>> grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    I suggest you go back and look at the Auriol Gray thread, all several hundred
    posts of it. And probably a similar number in unnm.

    For the record, I'm sure Mark is right on this one, but you're making
    me start to regret my curiosity as to why.

    I'm sure his right too; but if we start talking about we will be swamped by hecklers. And the discussion didn't change any minds last time.

    --
    Roger Hayter

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  • From Adam Funk@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 18:43:55 2023
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 13:52:13 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to >>involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, it's in case law. Which, of course, Norman only accepts when the judges agree with him.

    OK, thanks.

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  • From Adam Funk@21:1/5 to Roger Hayter on Tue Oct 17 18:44:16 2023
    On 2023-10-17, Roger Hayter wrote:

    On 17 Oct 2023 at 15:45:36 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Roger Hayter wrote:

    On 17 Oct 2023 at 13:52:13 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote: >>>
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in >>>>>>>> certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track' >>>>>>>> meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means >>>>>> 'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>>>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a >>>>> grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>>>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    I suggest you go back and look at the Auriol Gray thread, all several hundred
    posts of it. And probably a similar number in unnm.

    For the record, I'm sure Mark is right on this one, but you're making
    me start to regret my curiosity as to why.

    I'm sure his right too; but if we start talking about we will be swamped by hecklers. And the discussion didn't change any minds last time.

    OK, if that happens, I apologize in advance!

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 14:55:24 2023
    On 17/10/2023 12:59, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:30:01 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 17/10/2023 11:13, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 22:39:44 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>> On 16/10/2023 20:56, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 18:29:55 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    If it's worth copying it's worthy of protection is how it should be, at >>>>>> least for a limited period. How much simpler than reinventing the wheel >>>>>> or trying to work out how many angels can dance on the head of a pin. >>>>>
    Copyright has never been based on that, either in the UK or anywhere in the
    world. Why are you proposing such a radical change?

    It's the philosophy that underlies intellectual property rights
    generally,

    No, it isn't. It really isn't. The philosophy which underlies intellectual >>> property rights generally is the principle that authors (and, subsequently, >>> other creators) should have an incentive to create more.

    What incentive? It's not money.

    Yes, it is. The original point of copyright (or what later became copyright) was to incentivise the creation of original works to create more works, by giving their creators a sole right to financially exploit those works.

    That's not an incentive to create more. It's in fact an incentive to
    use his time not on further creation but on commercial exploitation of
    what he has already.

    Successful exploitation may be an incentive (or even a necessity) to
    produce more, but not the copyright itself.

    I suggest you spend some time looking at the history of copyright. You might find it educational.

    I doubt it.

    and the UK Copyright Act as enacted makes a pretty good stab
    at it. But only when it is enforceable as written, as was Parliament's >>>> intention.

    How do you know what Parliament's intention was?

    From the words it uses of course. If it had any other intention it
    would have used different words.

    And how do you interpret those words?

    What was your role in helping to draft the legislation?

    That's a very silly question.

    Well, of course, the answer to it is "absolutely none at all".

    It's knowing the answer that made it a very silly question.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 15:01:37 2023
    On 17/10/2023 12:53, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in
    certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings.

    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track'
    meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means
    'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of
    the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Which is precisely why we've been having a lengthy discussion here about Statutory interpretation and the literal rule that requires words in an
    Act to have their plain, literal and ordinary meanings. Not something
    abstruse from a different planet, not something that makes no sense in
    context, and certainly not something that means the opposite of what it
    says.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 15:04:27 2023
    On 17/10/2023 12:56, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:26:12 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 11:10, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 22:11:51 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>> On 16/10/2023 20:51, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 19:10:21 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 18:45, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Do you know how many definitions the words "original" and "work" have in the
    OED? Do you know which of them was intended by the authors of the >>>>>>> legislation?

    The number isn't relevant. It's only those that are reasonable,
    consistent, plain, literal and ordinary.

    Why do you think that some of the OED's definitions are unreasonable? >>>>
    Because some of them in context won't make any sense, some will even be >>>> the wrong part of speech, and some won't be plain, literal or ordinary >>>> but obscure and unnatural.

    I asked you, in the bit you decided to delete:

    "What definitions from the OED do you say apply in the interpretation of >>>> 'original work', if not 'new' and 'a product of labour'?"

    I'll answer that question after you've answered mine. I note that you
    skipped over that, previously.

    But I have. What do you think the sentence just above your reply means?

    It means you didn't answer my questions. Here they are again, separated into two lines:

    Do you know how many definitions the words "original" and "work" have in
    the OED?

    Nope, nor is it relevant. If you disagree, you'll have to make your own points.

    Do you know which of them was intended by the authors of the legislation?

    They're what I said only a few lines above.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Roger Hayter on Tue Oct 17 15:05:35 2023
    On 17/10/2023 13:07, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 12:53:55 BST, "Mark Goodge" <usenet@listmail.good-stuff.co.uk> wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>
    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in
    certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track'
    meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means
    'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of
    the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily
    something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Mark

    No doubt one of the "unnatural" definitions of "construct"!

    Hard to see it any other way when it refers to 'construct a cycle track'.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Adam Funk on Tue Oct 17 15:07:11 2023
    On 17/10/2023 13:52, Adam Funk wrote:
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>
    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    >>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in
    certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track'
    meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means
    'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of
    the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily
    something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, but that's not necessary. There is only one reasonable applicable definition.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Tim Jackson on Tue Oct 17 16:09:19 2023
    On 17/10/2023 15:51, Tim Jackson wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 18:29:55 +0100, Norman Wells wrote...

    On 16/10/2023 17:12, Tim Jackson wrote:
    Something I hadn't previously considered is that while CJEU
    decisions
    require "intellectual creation" as part of the test for originality, it
    is a uniform test.
    So in some respects, e.g. for sculptures and works of artistic
    craftsmanship, this might actually *lower* the UK's previous
    requirements:

    "This judgment has opened a potential can of worms for UK
    copyright. Under the current CDPA, certain types of copyright
    work have other requirements in addition to originality in
    order to acquire copyright protection."

    Indeed. Copyright law is in a right muddle due in no small part to
    European judges meddling in things they don't understand but feel they
    should control, and it desperately needs root and branch reform.

    A good illustration of what a mess it's in is actually over sculptures
    and what various judges have felt constrained, variously, to hold them
    to be. See for example this excellent review:

    https://www.york.ac.uk/media/law/yorklawreview/vol1/COOMBS%20YLR%20SPRING%202020%20V1%20FINAL.pdf

    This is the Star Wars Stormtrooper helmet case referred to in the
    Bristow's article I quoted above, where they say the CJEU Cofemel
    decision opened a can of worms for UK copyright.

    However, that Stormtrooper muddle was not caused by European law. It
    was entirely caused by domestic UK law. The only reference in the case
    to European law was a question about whether the English courts should
    have been hearing it at all.

    The reason it's a can of worms is because it forces a rethink of the
    previous UK muddle. Had the English court applied the uniform CJEU
    test, "author's own intellectual creation", the muddle would have been eliminated. It would have lowered the test for copyright in
    Stormtrooper helmets, so that it only required the author's own
    intellectual creation, not the higher muddled UK standard.

    So would 'new', and even simpler.

    Copyright law is now an absolute mess.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Adam Funk on Tue Oct 17 16:48:38 2023
    On 17/10/2023 15:45, Adam Funk wrote:
    On 2023-10-17, Roger Hayter wrote:

    On 17 Oct 2023 at 13:52:13 BST, "Adam Funk" <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote: >>
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:24:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>
    On 17/10/2023 11:43, Roger Hayter wrote:
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 09:45:24 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>>>> On 16/10/2023 23:04, Roger Hayter wrote:

    An "unnatural" meaning of a word is a worrying concept in many ways. Are you
    personally going to be responsible for telling courts when they have picked an
    unnatural definition of a word?

    We've had arguments here before over the meaning of words used in >>>>>>> certain Acts, and some have argued for extremely unnatural meanings. >>>>>>>
    Perhaps you recall Mr Parker arguing that 'construct a cycle track' >>>>>>> meant not constructing one at all?

    A good example; he was right and you were wrong.

    Of course! How silly of me not to appreciate that 'construct' means >>>>> 'not construct'.

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a >>>> grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    I suggest you go back and look at the Auriol Gray thread, all several hundred
    posts of it. And probably a similar number in unnm.

    For the record, I'm sure Mark is right on this one, but you're making
    me start to regret my curiosity as to why.

    I think that's absolutely bizarre.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 16:49:14 2023
    On 17/10/2023 16:38, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 13:52:13 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a
    grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, it's in case law. Which, of course, Norman only accepts when the judges agree with him.

    Please cite it.

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  • From Mark Goodge@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 17 20:07:52 2023
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 15:04:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 12:56, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:26:12 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>
    On 17/10/2023 11:10, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 22:11:51 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>>> On 16/10/2023 20:51, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 19:10:21 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 18:45, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Do you know how many definitions the words "original" and "work" have in the
    OED? Do you know which of them was intended by the authors of the >>>>>>>> legislation?

    The number isn't relevant. It's only those that are reasonable, >>>>>>> consistent, plain, literal and ordinary.

    Why do you think that some of the OED's definitions are unreasonable? >>>>>
    Because some of them in context won't make any sense, some will even be >>>>> the wrong part of speech, and some won't be plain, literal or ordinary >>>>> but obscure and unnatural.

    I asked you, in the bit you decided to delete:

    "What definitions from the OED do you say apply in the interpretation of >>>>> 'original work', if not 'new' and 'a product of labour'?"

    I'll answer that question after you've answered mine. I note that you
    skipped over that, previously.

    But I have. What do you think the sentence just above your reply means?

    It means you didn't answer my questions. Here they are again, separated into >> two lines:

    Do you know how many definitions the words "original" and "work" have in >> the OED?

    Nope

    Fine, I'll accept your admission that you're unable to answer my points.

    Mark

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  • From Mark Goodge@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 17 20:09:06 2023
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 14:55:24 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 12:59, Mark Goodge wrote:

    I suggest you spend some time looking at the history of copyright. You might >> find it educational.

    I doubt it.

    That is at least an honest answer.

    Mark

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  • From Roger Hayter@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 17 19:14:17 2023
    On 17 Oct 2023 at 16:49:14 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 16:38, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 13:52:13 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote: >>
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a >>>> grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, it's in case law. Which, of course, Norman only accepts when the judges >> agree with him.

    Please cite it.

    Please don't. We've really, really exhausted this topic very recently.

    --
    Roger Hayter

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  • From Mark Goodge@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 17 20:24:14 2023
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 16:49:14 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 16:38, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 13:52:13 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote: >>
    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a >>>> grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, it's in case law. Which, of course, Norman only accepts when the judges >> agree with him.

    Please cite it.

    It was mentioned in the thread previously referred to. If you really want
    the precise cite, you can look it up just as easily as I can.

    Mark

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 22:01:51 2023
    On 17/10/2023 20:24, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 16:49:14 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 16:38, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 13:52:13 +0100, Adam Funk <a24061a@ducksburg.com> wrote:

    On 2023-10-17, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Well, what he actually pointed out was that "construct" in the context of >>>>> the legislation has much the same meaning as it does in, for example, a >>>>> grammatical construction, or a logical construction, and not necessarily >>>>> something which requires getting the diggers out.

    Just out of curiosity (and to be clear, not because I think it has to
    involve diggers), is there something in that statute or another
    relevant one that defines "construct" for this purpose?

    No, it's in case law. Which, of course, Norman only accepts when the judges >>> agree with him.

    Please cite it.

    It was mentioned in the thread previously referred to. If you really want
    the precise cite, you can look it up just as easily as I can.

    No, you raised it, you support it. You see, I don't think you can.

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  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Tue Oct 17 22:02:54 2023
    On 17/10/2023 20:07, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 15:04:27 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 17/10/2023 12:56, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Tue, 17 Oct 2023 12:26:12 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote: >>>
    On 17/10/2023 11:10, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 22:11:51 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 20:51, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Mon, 16 Oct 2023 19:10:21 +0100, Norman Wells <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 18:45, Mark Goodge wrote:

    Do you know how many definitions the words "original" and "work" have in the
    OED? Do you know which of them was intended by the authors of the >>>>>>>>> legislation?

    The number isn't relevant. It's only those that are reasonable, >>>>>>>> consistent, plain, literal and ordinary.

    Why do you think that some of the OED's definitions are unreasonable? >>>>>>
    Because some of them in context won't make any sense, some will even be >>>>>> the wrong part of speech, and some won't be plain, literal or ordinary >>>>>> but obscure and unnatural.

    I asked you, in the bit you decided to delete:

    "What definitions from the OED do you say apply in the interpretation of >>>>>> 'original work', if not 'new' and 'a product of labour'?"

    I'll answer that question after you've answered mine. I note that you >>>>> skipped over that, previously.

    But I have. What do you think the sentence just above your reply means? >>>
    It means you didn't answer my questions. Here they are again, separated into
    two lines:

    Do you know how many definitions the words "original" and "work" have in
    the OED?

    Nope

    Fine, I'll accept your admission that you're unable to answer my points.

    How many doesn't matter in the slightest.

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  • From Tim Jackson@21:1/5 to All on Sat Oct 21 18:53:46 2023
    On Sun, 15 Oct 2023 09:32:33 +0100, Martin Brown wrote...

    Not quite. It is clear cut absolutely yours if the image was taken by an employee *directly* employed by you.

    However, if you hire a professional photographer then the image
    copyright remains with them or the company that they work for by default unless you agree otherwise in advance (or later buy out the copyright).

    It makes no difference who owns the copyright provided that you only use
    the image for the purpose it was taken. It only becomes a big issue if
    the image has significant commercial value and you sell it elsewhere.
    (such images are rare but not incredibly so)

    Same applies to wedding photographers although most people are unaware -
    they retain the image copyright even though you commissioned the work.

    Sorry to come back rather late, but while looking for something else I
    just came across this more detailed confirmation of what you say.

    https://www.gov.uk/guidance/ownership-of-copyright-works

    --
    Tim Jackson
    news@timjackson.invalid
    (Change '.invalid' to '.plus.com' to reply direct)

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  • From Simon Parker@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 24 12:07:26 2023
    On 17/10/2023 09:39, Norman Wells wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 22:36, Fredxx wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 19:10, Norman Wells wrote:

    Why are you concerned just with cases that go to appeal?  The lower
    courts have to decide such things too where necessary.

    I can see where your going wrong. Where a case does go to an upper
    court then precedents are made from those interpretation and meaning
    of words.

    No, that's 'binding' precedents.  All court decisions are precedents,

    "All court decisions are precedents", you say?

    "*All* court decisions"?

    I have to assume you were absent when the hierarchy of courts and the
    doctrine of precedent was being discussed at law school as neither the Magistrates' Court nor the County Court have the power to set precedent
    nor can they overrule precedent set in previous cases.


    but the lower courts' decisions are not binding so they don't have to be followed.  Nevertheless, it's not a free-for-all with all the lower
    courts reinventing the wheel and deciding the same point willy-nilly and however they want if it comes before them.  They will consider the
    decisions in similar level courts and will attempt to reconcile their
    own decisions with those of other courts however they can.

    Sometimes those definitions change and don't follow your dictionary
    definitions.

    Then, in the words of Lord Simmons I've referred to previously, it is:

    "a naked usurpation of the legislative function under the thin disguise
    of interpretation".

    Be that as it may, your understanding of Statutory Interpretation
    remains mistaken.

    Perhaps it will help if I provide two sample cases and post selected
    snippets from the judgments to enable you to see how the process works,
    so you can see that it is nothing like you think it is. (Free clue: in
    neither case is a dictionary consulted.)

    The first case is Regina v Secretary of State for Health (Respondent) ex
    parte Quintavalle (on behalf of Pro-Life Alliance) (Appellant) [2003]
    UKHL 13 [1]

    The decision before the court was, as Lord Bingham of Cornhill explained
    in paragraph [1] of the judgment:

    "1. The issues in this appeal are whether live human embryos created by
    cell nuclear replacement (CNR) fall outside the regulatory scope of the
    Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990 and whether licensing the
    creation of such embryos is prohibited by section 3(3)(d) of that Act."

    In short, the case would turn on the precise meaning of word "embryo".
    You believe that they need merely lookup the word "embryo" in a
    dictionary, determine whether or not the CNR process creates something
    that meets that definition and the judgment will follow therefrom.

    But let us look at what they actually did.

    For background, the appellant, acting on behalf of the pressure group
    Pro-Life, argued before the House of Lords that because CNR was a new
    process it was not covered by the 1990 Act and therefore the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority did not have the authority under
    the Act to licence research involving CNR. It pointed out
    that in s1 of the Act an embryo regulated by the Act is defined as 'a
    live human embryo where fertilisation is complete' and that CNR does not involve a process of fertilisation.

    It should be noted, before continuing, that the House of Lords applied
    the purposive approach to interpreting the Act and explained why they
    had done so.

    Selected text from the judgment with paragraph numbers shown:

    LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL

    8. The basic task of the court is to ascertain and give effect to
    the true meaning of what Parliament has said in the enactment to be
    construed. But that is not to say that attention should be confined and
    a literal interpretation given to the particular provisions which give
    rise to difficulty. Such an approach not only encourages immense
    prolixity in drafting, since the draftsman will feel obliged to provide expressly for every contingency which may possibly arise. It may also
    (under the banner of loyalty to the will of Parliament) lead to the
    frustration of that will, because undue concentration on the minutiae of
    the enactment may lead the court to neglect the purpose which Parliament intended to achieve when it enacted the statute. Every statute other
    than a pure consolidating statute is, after all, enacted to make some
    change, or address some problem, or remove some blemish, or effect some improvement in the national life. The court's task, within the
    permissible bounds of interpretation, is to give effect to Parliament's purpose. So the controversial provisions should be read in the context
    of the statute as a whole, and the statute as a whole should be read in
    the historical context of the situation which led to its enactment.

    9. There is, I think, no inconsistency between the rule that
    statutory language retains the meaning it had when Parliament used it
    and the rule that a statute is always speaking. If Parliament, however
    long ago, passed an Act applicable to dogs, it could not properly be interpreted to apply to cats; but it could properly be held to apply to
    animals which were not regarded as dogs when the Act was passed but are
    so regarded now. The meaning of "cruel and unusual punishments" has not
    changed over the years since 1689, but many punishments which were not
    then thought to fall within that category would now be held to do so.
    The courts have frequently had to grapple with the question whether a
    modern invention or activity falls within old statutory language: see
    Bennion, Statutory Interpretation, 4th ed (2002) Part XVIII, Section
    288. A revealing example is found in Grant v Southwestern and County
    Properties Ltd [1975] Ch 185, where Walton J had to decide whether a
    tape recording fell within the expression "document" in the Rules of the Supreme Court. Pointing out (page 190) that the furnishing of
    information had been treated as one of the main functions of a document,
    the judge concluded that the tape recording was a document.

    10. Limited help is in my opinion to be derived from statements
    made in cases where there is said to be an omission in a statute
    attributable to the oversight or inadvertence of the draftsman: see
    Jones v Wrotham Park Settled Estates [1980] AC 74 at 105; Inco Europe
    Ltd v First Choice Distribution [2000] 1 WLR 586. This is not such a
    case. More pertinent is the guidance given by the late Lord Wilberforce
    in his dissenting opinion in Royal College of Nursing of the United
    Kingdom v Department of Health and Social Security [1981] AC 800. The
    case concerned the Abortion Act 1967 and the issue which divided the
    House was whether nurses could lawfully take part in a termination
    procedure not known when the Act was passed. At page 822 Lord
    Wilberforce said:

    "In interpreting an Act of Parliament it is proper, and indeed
    necessary, to have regard to the state of affairs existing, and known by Parliament to be existing, at the time. It is a fair presumption that Parliament's policy or intention is directed to that state of affairs.
    Leaving aside cases of omission by inadvertence, this being not such a
    case, when a new state of affairs, or a fresh set of facts bearing on
    policy, comes into existence, the courts have to consider whether they
    fall within the Parliamentary intention. They may be held to do so, if
    they fall within the same genus of facts as those to which the expressed
    policy has been formulated. They may also be held to do so if there can
    be detected a clear purpose in the legislation which can only be
    fulfilled if the extension is made. How liberally these principles may
    be applied must depend upon the nature of the enactment, and the
    strictness or otherwise of the words in which it has been expressed. The
    courts should be less willing to extend expressed meanings if it is
    clear that the Act in question was designed to be restrictive or
    circumscribed in its operation rather than liberal or permissive. They
    will be much less willing to do so where the subject matter is different
    in kind or dimension from that for which the legislation was passed. In
    any event there is one course which the courts cannot take, under the
    law of this country; they cannot fill gaps; they cannot by asking the
    question 'What would Parliament have done in this current case - not
    being one in contemplation - if the facts had been before it?' attempt themselves to supply the answer, if the answer is not to be found in the
    terms of the Act itself."

    Both parties relied on this passage, which may now be treated as
    authoritative. Mr Gordon QC for the Alliance submitted that the Court of
    Appeal had fallen into error by asking the question which Lord
    Wilberforce said should not be asked, and by themselves supplying the
    answer.

    ...

    Section 1(1)(a)

    14. It is against this background that one comes to interpret
    section 1(1)(a). At first reading Mr Gordon's construction has an
    obvious attraction: the Act is dealing with live human embryos "where fertilisation is complete", and the definition is a composite one
    including the last four words. But the Act is only directed to the
    creation of embryos in vitro, outside the human body (section 1(2)). Can Parliament have been intending to distinguish between live human embryos produced by fertilisation of a female egg and live human embryos
    produced without such fertilisation? The answer must certainly be
    negative, since Parliament was unaware that the latter alternative was physically possible. This suggests that the four words were not intended
    to form an integral part of the definition of embryo but were directed
    to the time at which it should be treated as such. This was the view
    taken by the judge (in paragraph 62 of his judgment) and by the Court of
    Appeal (paragraphs 29, 53, 58) and I agree with it. The somewhat
    marginal importance of the four words is in my opinion indicated by the
    fact that section 1(1)(b) appears to contradict them. The crucial point, strongly relied on by Mr Parker QC in his compelling argument, is that
    this was an Act passed for the protection of live human embryos created
    outside the human body. The essential thrust of section 1(1)(a) was
    directed to such embryos, not to the manner of their creation, which
    Parliament (entirely understandably on the then current state of
    scientific knowledge) took for granted.

    15. Bearing in mind the constitutional imperative that the courts
    stick to their interpretative role and do not assume the mantle of
    legislators, however, I would not leave the matter there but would seek
    to apply the guidance of Lord Wilberforce quoted above in paragraph 10:

    (1) Does the creation of live human embryos by CNR fall within the same
    genus of facts as those to which the expressed policy of Parliament has
    been formulated? In my opinion, it plainly does. An embryo created by in
    vitro fertilisation and one created by CNR are very similar organisms.
    The difference between them as organisms is that the CNR embryo, if
    allowed to develop, will grow into a clone of the donor of the
    replacement nucleus which the embryo produced by fertilisation will not.
    But this is a difference which plainly points towards the need for
    regulation, not against it.

    (2) Is the operation of the 1990 Act to be regarded as liberal and
    permissive in its operation or restrictive and circumscribed? This is
    not an entirely simple question. The Act intended to permit certain
    activities but to circumscribe the freedom to pursue them which had
    previously been enjoyed. Loyalty to the evident purpose of the Act would require regulation of activities not distinguishable in any significant
    respect from those regulated by the Act, unless the wording or policy of
    the Act shows that they should be prohibited.

    (3) Is the embryo created by CNR different in kind or dimension from
    that for which the Act was passed? Plainly not: as already pointed out,
    the organisms in question are, as organisms, very similar.

    While it is impermissible to ask what Parliament would have done if the
    facts had been before it, there is one important question which may
    permissibly be asked: it is whether Parliament, faced with the taxing
    task of enacting a legislative solution to the difficult religious,
    moral and scientific issues mentioned above, could rationally have
    intended to leave live human embryos created by CNR outside the scope of regulation had it known of them as a scientific possibility. There is
    only one possible answer to this question and it is negative.

    ...

    19. For these reasons I would dismiss the appeal with costs.

    LORD STEYN

    Purposive Interpretation

    21. In reaching a conclusion that cell nuclear replacement is a
    process covered by section 1(1) of the Human Fertilisation and
    Embryology Act 1990 the Court of Appeal adopted a purposive approach:
    para 27. The extensive interpretation adopted by the Court of Appeal
    could only be justified by a purposive approach. It was a necessary step
    in the reasoning of the Court of Appeal but not a sufficient one. The
    Court of Appeal found the basis for such an approach in the fact that
    the Human Rights Act 1998 extended "the boundaries of purposive interpretation…where needs must". Given that the 1998 Act is not
    applicable in the present case I would accept the submission of counsel
    for the appellant that this approach is not appropriate. On the other
    hand, the adoption of a purposive approach to construction of statutes generally, and the 1990 Act in particular, is amply justified on wider
    grounds. In Cabell v Markham (1945) 148 F 2d 737 Justice Learned Hand
    explained the merits of purposive interpretation, at p 739:

    "Of course it is true that the words used, even in their literal sense,
    are the primary, and ordinarily the most reliable, source of
    interpreting the meaning of any writing: be it a statute, a contract, or anything else. But it is one of the surest indexes of a mature developed jurisprudence not to make a fortress out of the dictionary; but to
    remember that statutes always have some purpose or object to accomplish,
    whose sympathetic and imaginative discovery is the surest guide to their meaning."

    The pendulum has swung towards purposive methods of construction. This
    change was not initiated by the teleological approach of European
    Community jurisprudence, and the influence of European legal culture
    generally, but it has been accelerated by European ideas: see, however,
    a classic early statement of the purposive approach by Lord Blackburn in
    River Wear Commissioners v Adamson (1877) 2 App Cas 743, 763. In any
    event, nowadays the shift towards purposive interpretation is not in
    doubt. The qualification is that the degree of liberality permitted is influenced by the context, eg social welfare legislation and tax
    statutes may have to be approached somewhat differently. For these
    slightly different reasons I agree with the conclusion of the Court of
    Appeal that section 1(1) of the 1990 Act must be construed in a
    purposive way.
    <end quotes>

    (I recommend that anyone interested in Statutory Interpretation read the
    whole judgment but have selected these paragraphs as they show the
    process in action.)

    However, that is not to say that the Purposive Approach is always correct.

    In a more recent case involving the interpretation of the Human
    Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990 the House of Lords refused to take
    a purposive approach to interpreting the statute.

    I therefore give you Quintavalle (on behalf of Comment on Reproductive
    Ethics) (Appellant) v Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority (Respondents) [2005] UKHL 28 [2]:

    LORD HOFFMANN

    [32] Lord Wilberforce's remarks provided valuable assistance to the
    House in R (Quintavalle) v Secretary of State for Health [2003] 2 AC
    687. The question there was whether the definition of an embryo in the
    1990 Act, which contemplated that it would be created by fertilisation, extended to embryos created by cell nuclear replacement in an
    unfertilised egg. This was a method of creating embryos which was not contemplated at the time of the Act and the language of the definition
    was to some extent inappropriate to describe it, but the House
    nevertheless held that the policy of the Act was to regulate the use of
    embryos however created. The House followed Lord Wilberforce's guidance
    in holding that there was a "clear purpose in the legislation" which
    could "only be fulfilled if the extension [was] made".

    [33] But, like all guidance on construction, Lord Wilberforce's remarks
    are more appropriate to some cases than others. This is not a case in
    which one starts with the presumption that Parliament's intention was
    directed to the state of affairs existing at the time of the Act. It
    obviously intended to regulate research and treatment which were not
    possible at the time. Nor is it a case, like the first Quintavalle case,
    in which the statutory language needs to be extended beyond the
    "expressed meaning". The word "suitable" is an empty vessel which is
    filled with meaning by context and background. Nor is it helpful in this
    case to ask whether some new state of affairs falls within "the same
    genus" as those to which the expressed policy has been formulated. That
    would beg the question because the dispute is precisely over what the
    genus is. If "suitability" has the meaning for which the authority
    contends, then plainly PGD and HLA typing fall within it. If not, then
    not. Finally, Lord Wilberforce's recommendation of caution in the
    construction of statutes concerning controversial subjects "involving
    moral and social judgments on which opinions strongly differ" would be
    very much to the point if everything which the Act did not forbid was permitted. It has much less force when the question is whether or not
    the authority has power to authorise it.

    LORD BROWN OF EATON-UNDER-HEYWOOD

    [43] The ethical questions raised by such a process are, it need hardly
    be stated, profound. Should genetic testing be used to enable a choice
    to be made between a number of healthy embryos, a choice based on the
    selection of certain preferred genetic characteristics? Is it acceptable
    to follow a procedure resulting in the birth of a child designed to
    secure the health of a sibling and necessarily therefore intended to
    donate tissue (including perhaps bone marrow) to that sibling? Is this
    straying into the field of "designer babies" or, as the celebrated
    geneticist, Lord Winston, has put it, "treating the offspring to be born
    as a commodity?" These are just some of the questions prompted by this litigation. But troubling though such questions are, the arguments are certainly not all one way, as may be demonstrated by the facts of this
    very case.

    <end quotes>

    Both cases demonstrate that there is no "one size fits all" nor is there
    a hierarchy (as erroneously claimed) nor even a particular rule that
    must always be followed regardless.

    Each case is decided on its own merits and the most appropriate guidance
    on interpretation will be used to reach the correct decision. That
    might be the literal rule, or it might not.

    To insist the literal rule must be used in all cases by all courts is a
    fiction of your own devising and, as I've said numerous times,
    frequently leads you astray in your mistaken understanding of
    interpretation.


    The lower courts generally follow those cases and often form part of
    the argument in the lower court.

    Binding precedents have to be followed.  It's what the term means.

    Hopefully you can see that blindly following dictionary definitions
    isn't always very helpful when it comes to case law. Assuming you
    understand the importance of case law?

    The literal rule of Statutory interpretation is well established and has
    to be followed.

    Oh no it doesn't.


    Judges are not free to amend the law by changing the
    clear intention of Parliament expressed in the words it used.

    We are a common law jurisdiction. Judges are well within their
    capabilities and rights to clarify the law with case law. The cases
    I've highlighted herein are perfect examples of this.

    I hope you take the time to read and understand the text I've taken the
    time to select from the above judgments, which I've also taken time to
    select.

    If you do, then you have a chance of beginning to understand the process
    of interpretation.

    However, if you insist on sticking to your dogmatic use of the literal
    rule then I am not sure that I can assist you further in coming to a
    correct understanding of the process.

    Regards

    S.P.

    [1] https://www.bailii.org/uk/cases/UKHL/2003/13.html
    [2] https://www.bailii.org/uk/cases/UKHL/2005/28.html

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  • From Simon Parker@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 24 11:59:58 2023
    On 10/10/2023 08:48, Norman Wells wrote:
    On 09/10/2023 23:03, Simon Parker wrote:
    On 09/10/2023 14:05, Norman Wells wrote:

    I don't think that's a definition of 'original' either.  Not
    according to any of the dictionaries I've seen anyway.

    Call me old-fashioned, but I think laws should say what they mean,
    mean what they say, and only be altered by legislators.  Don't you?

    You are repeating the mistake you frequently make.

    This is uk.legal.moderated.  Alt.English.Usage is over there ----->.

    There's no mistake.

    I'll confidently wager that you will repeat the mistake at least once
    more before the end of this post...


    Laws are written in language to be understood, not
    as a starting point for successive iterations like the game of changing
    BLACK into WHITE in six easy steps, which is what has happened.

    In your opinion. Which isn't always correct; rather it is frequently
    mistaken.


    It's a fundamental principle of legal construction in the UK that laws
    mean what they say in the ordinary English in which they are expressed.

    I invite you to quote section 72 of the Highway Act 1835 - a piece of legislation we considered here in ULM recently and then tell me where in
    the UK you were, precisely, when you overheard "ordinary English" being expressed in the manner used in that legislation.

    As this more than ably demonstrates, language changes. If it didn't, no
    new dictionaries would have been produced since 1835.


    They're supposed to tell people what they must not do, you see, without having to guess that they might some way down the line mean something
    else entirely or even the opposite.

    The UK operates a common law system meaning the courts can develop the
    law when a court of record clarifies the law thereby setting a precedent
    for other courts to follow or apply in later cases.

    The system neither asks for nor needs your agreement. It has been
    working fine for centuries. If you don't like that system, you need to consider moving elsewhere as I am not aware of any plans to change it regardless of which government is in power.


    The word 'original' is that which is used in the UK legislation.  It properly falls to be interpreted as that word is ordinarily used in the English language, for which the definitive works are what are called dictionaries.

    And there's the mistake right there. That is not the test applied when determining the meaning of legislation, as has been explained to you
    numerous times by multiple posters, myself included.

    I've quoted them before but here are the words of paragraph 11-01 from
    'Bennion on Statutory Interpretation', (8th edition (2020)).

    <quote>
    i) The primary indication of legislative intention is the legislative
    text, read in context;

    ii) Parliament is assumed to be a rational, reasonable and informed
    legislature pursuing a clear purpose in a coherent and principled
    manner; and

    iii) The rules, principles, presumptions and canons which govern
    statutory interpretation are aids to construing the legislative text.
    <end quote>

    Please point to the part where it says that dictionaries, and only dictionaries, must be used when determining legislative intention.

    If it isn't in that paragraph, perhaps you have a different paragraph
    from Bennion's in mind?

    Which paragraph number please so I may consult it for myself to ensure
    it states what you claim.

    Or perhaps you had a source more authoritative than Bennion's in mind?
    If so, please do let me know what source you have in mind and I'll see
    if we have a copy when I'm next in chambers.


    It follows that, if the meaning of the word is in any doubt,
    dictionaries will have to be consulted.

    It doesn't follow, at all. In case you missed it first time around
    ("the first time" in this post - it has been quoted several times
    previously), "The rules, principles, presumptions and canons which
    govern statutory interpretation are aids to construing the legislative
    text."

    Rules - plural, not just the one, the literal rule, which you insist
    must be used in all situations and at all times - are only part of the
    decision making arsenal at the disposal of the judges. There are
    "principles, presumptions and canons" too. But even then, such things
    are merely "aids to construing the legislative text."

    In short, the literal rule isn't a rule at all, it is an aid and by no
    means the only one or even the most important one.

    Unless you are going to claim that Bennion's is wrong?

    You're not going to claim that, are you?


    And if you do that you find
    what is obvious anyway to anyone who speaks the language that it means essentially 'the first one', and that's all.

    You will look in vain for any definition that refers to 'own
    intellectual creation' which in any case has seemingly had to be derived
    from 'originality' rather than 'original' which is the word used in the legislation.  It's a bit of a giveaway that misinterpretation is at hand.


    I'm not a judge. I don't get to determine legislative intention. So I
    don't need to look, therefore your suggestion that I will be looking in
    vain is mistaken.

    The meaning of the phrase at issue has already been clarified in law.
    I've even given you the case name so you can look it up for yourself.

    If you don't agree with that clarification you need to..., ah..., you
    can..., well..., this is awkward.

    It is my sad duty to inform you that there is precisely nothing you can
    do about it.

    You can pontificate here until the cows come home and you can insist
    that the learned judges were wrong, even going so far as to provide a
    list of reasons as to why you think they were wrong.

    But, and this is the important part, their decision stands regardless of
    anything you have to say on the matter here or indeed anywhere else.
    Your thoughts are of no consequence whatsoever.


    "The author's own intellectual creation" is a legal phrase which Tim
    kindly placed in quotes, I believe, to indicate such.

    You could do worse than obtain no more than the briefest understanding
    of "The Infopaq Case" (Ed: do you see what I've done with that phrase
    there?) [1] to clarify matters for you which will, it is hoped, assist
    you in understanding where you have misdirected yourself.

    Once you have grasped the point that "the author's own intellectual
    creation" applies to all Berne Convention "works" under the European
    acquis, then I would recommend moving on to SAS v World Programming in
    which the courts helpfully explicated the "intellectual creation" test
    thus:

    "The essence of the term is that the person in question has exercised
    expressive and creative choices in producing the work.  The more
    restricted the choices, the less likely it is that the product will be
    the intellectual creation (or the expression of the intellectual
    creation) of the person who produced it."

    I trust this assists you in coming to a better, more accurate
    understanding of the matter.

    The Berne Convention actually says that 'the expression “literary and artistic works” shall include every production in the literary,
    scientific and artistic domain'.

    There is no reference there either to 'own intellectual creation'.  It
    is 'every production'.

    Oh dear! And here's mistake number two.

    I'm not sure I can spell it out more clearly but "The Infopaq Case"
    clarified the law and the phrase "the author's own intellection
    creation" thereafter applies to all "works" protected by the Berne
    Convention under the European acquis.

    Again, you may not like this. You may not agree with it. Your options
    remain the same as detailed above. There is nothing you can do about it
    and your thoughts on the matter are of no consequence whatsoever.


    As always, I'm happy to help where I can but have been busy of late
    and haven't been posting as much as I would have liked.

    I am of course aware how the case law has developed.  What you don't
    seem able to comprehend is what a wrong path it has followed. 'Original'
    no longer means what it says.  And that's a fundamental misinterpretation.
    In your opinion. And if you were a senior judge that had been asked to
    sit on a relevant case, your opinion might matter.

    But you're not, you haven't and it doesn't.

    Regards

    S.P.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Simon Parker on Tue Oct 24 14:52:02 2023
    On 24/10/2023 11:59, Simon Parker wrote:
    On 10/10/2023 08:48, Norman Wells wrote:
    On 09/10/2023 23:03, Simon Parker wrote:
    On 09/10/2023 14:05, Norman Wells wrote:

    I don't think that's a definition of 'original' either.  Not
    according to any of the dictionaries I've seen anyway.

    Call me old-fashioned, but I think laws should say what they mean,
    mean what they say, and only be altered by legislators.  Don't you?

    You are repeating the mistake you frequently make.

    This is uk.legal.moderated.  Alt.English.Usage is over there ----->.

    There's no mistake.

    I'll confidently wager that you will repeat the mistake at least once
    more before the end of this post...

    Laws are written in language to be understood, not as a starting point
    for successive iterations like the game of changing BLACK into WHITE
    in six easy steps, which is what has happened.

    In your opinion.  Which isn't always correct; rather it is frequently mistaken.

    It's a fundamental principle of legal construction in the UK that laws
    mean what they say in the ordinary English in which they are expressed.

    I invite you to quote section 72 of the Highway Act 1835 - a piece of legislation we considered here in ULM recently and then tell me where in
    the UK you were, precisely, when you overheard "ordinary English" being expressed in the manner used in that legislation.

    What is it exactly you do not understand in that Section? If you say,
    perhaps I can help you out because I find it eminently understandable
    even though it is nearly 200 years old.

    As this more than ably demonstrates, language changes.  If it didn't, no
    new dictionaries would have been produced since 1835.

    In what significant way are you saying the language has changed so as to
    alter the meaning of S72 between then and now?

    They're supposed to tell people what they must not do, you see,
    without having to guess that they might some way down the line mean
    something else entirely or even the opposite.

    The UK operates a common law system meaning the courts can develop the
    law when a court of record clarifies the law thereby setting a precedent
    for other courts to follow or apply in later cases.

    Not willy-nilly. Where there is Statute law, courts cannot alter it but
    merely explain its 'true' construction within the confines of words used
    in it that actually need interpretation. Anything else is
    misinterpretation.

    The system neither asks for nor needs your agreement.  It has been
    working fine for centuries.  If you don't like that system, you need to consider moving elsewhere as I am not aware of any plans to change it regardless of which government is in power.

    Who suggested anything of the sort? Not me.

    The word 'original' is that which is used in the UK legislation.  It
    properly falls to be interpreted as that word is ordinarily used in
    the English language, for which the definitive works are what are
    called dictionaries.

    And there's the mistake right there.  That is not the test applied when determining the meaning of legislation, as has been explained to you
    numerous times by multiple posters, myself included.

    The literal test is the first and primary test. It is only where that
    gives rise to logical difficulties that the other tests may be employed.

    I've quoted them before but here are the words of paragraph 11-01 from 'Bennion on Statutory Interpretation', (8th edition (2020)).

    <quote>
    i) The primary indication of legislative intention is the legislative
    text, read in context;

    ie the Literal Rule.

    ii) Parliament is assumed to be a rational, reasonable and informed legislature pursuing a clear purpose in a coherent and principled
    manner;

    ie, if the Literal Rule works without logical difficulties, that's all
    that's necessary

    and

    iii) The rules, principles, presumptions and canons which govern
    statutory interpretation are aids to construing the legislative text.
    <end quote>

    Quite. The Literal Rule being first and foremost among them.

    Please point to the part where it says that dictionaries, and only dictionaries, must be used when determining legislative intention.

    Since I never said that, no. But they're jolly useful nevertheless.

    It follows that, if the meaning of the word is in any doubt,
    dictionaries will have to be consulted.

    It doesn't follow, at all.  In case you missed it first time around
    ("the first time" in this post - it has been quoted several times previously), "The rules, principles, presumptions and canons which
    govern statutory interpretation are aids to construing the legislative
    text."

    Please quote the "rules, principles, presumptions and canons" you mean
    that you think apply, and say in which order and when you stop.

    Rules - plural, not just the one, the literal rule, which you insist
    must be used in all situations and at all times - are only part of the decision making arsenal at the disposal of the judges.  There are "principles, presumptions and canons" too.  But even then, such things
    are merely "aids to construing the legislative text."

    In short, the literal rule isn't a rule at all, it is an aid and by no
    means the only one or even the most important one.

    But it is the most important one for obvious reasons. I've quoted
    several eminent judges here in this thread who have said as much.

    Unless you are going to claim that Bennion's is wrong?

    I don't think he's disagreeing with me actually.

    You're not going to claim that, are you?

    And if you do that you find what is obvious anyway to anyone who
    speaks the language that it means essentially 'the first one', and
    that's all.

    You will look in vain for any definition that refers to 'own
    intellectual creation' which in any case has seemingly had to be
    derived from 'originality' rather than 'original' which is the word
    used in the legislation.  It's a bit of a giveaway that
    misinterpretation is at hand.

    I'm not a judge.  I don't get to determine legislative intention.

    No, the best indication of that is the words the legislators used in the legislation. If they have a coherent meaning in ordinary English, that
    was obviously the legislative intention.

      So I
    don't need to look, therefore your suggestion that I will be looking in
    vain is mistaken.

    The meaning of the phrase at issue has already been clarified in law.

    No, it's been 'altered', not clarified.

    And I'm saying that's a step too far.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to billy bookcase on Wed Oct 25 09:46:02 2023
    On 24/10/2023 23:57, billy bookcase wrote:
    "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote in message news:kpq2mjFsi0tU3@mid.individual.net...

    On 24/10/2023 12:07, Simon Parker wrote:

    We are a common law jurisdiction. Judges are well within their
    capabilities and rights to clarify the law with case law.

    Clarify, not change.

    But if it isn't going to change anything, then what exactly
    is the point of clarification ?

    To clarify, obviously. For the avoidance of doubt.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Simon Parker on Tue Oct 24 15:29:39 2023
    On 24/10/2023 12:07, Simon Parker wrote:
    On 17/10/2023 09:39, Norman Wells wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 22:36, Fredxx wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 19:10, Norman Wells wrote:

    Why are you concerned just with cases that go to appeal?  The lower
    courts have to decide such things too where necessary.

    I can see where your going wrong. Where a case does go to an upper
    court then precedents are made from those interpretation and meaning
    of words.

    No, that's 'binding' precedents.  All court decisions are precedents,

    "All court decisions are precedents", you say?

    "*All* court decisions"?

    Yes, of course. The word precedent simply means coming before.
    I have to assume you were absent when the hierarchy of courts and the doctrine of precedent was being discussed at law school as neither the Magistrates' Court nor the County Court have the power to set precedent
    nor can they overrule precedent set in previous cases.

    You're confusing 'precedents' with 'binding precedents'. Not all
    precedents are binding, only those from higher courts, but they are
    precedents nevertheless.

    Even the Supreme Court, ie the highest court in the land that isn't
    bound by anything, 'relies on precedents — that is, earlier laws or
    decisions that provide some example or rule to guide them in the case
    they're actually deciding'.

    https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/precedent#:~:text=A%20precedent%20is%20something%20that,case%20they're%20actually%20deciding.

    but the lower courts' decisions are not binding so they don't have to
    be followed.  Nevertheless, it's not a free-for-all with all the lower
    courts reinventing the wheel and deciding the same point willy-nilly
    and however they want if it comes before them.  They will consider the
    decisions in similar level courts and will attempt to reconcile their
    own decisions with those of other courts however they can.

    Sometimes those definitions change and don't follow your dictionary
    definitions.

    Then, in the words of Lord Simmons I've referred to previously, it is:

    "a naked usurpation of the legislative function under the thin
    disguise of interpretation".

    Be that as it may, your understanding of Statutory Interpretation
    remains mistaken.

    Absolutely not.

    Perhaps it will help if I provide two sample cases and post selected
    snippets from the judgments to enable you to see how the process works,
    so you can see that it is nothing like you think it is.  (Free clue: in neither case is a dictionary consulted.)

    The first case is Regina v Secretary of State for Health (Respondent) ex parte Quintavalle (on behalf of Pro-Life Alliance) (Appellant) [2003]
    UKHL 13 [1]

    The decision before the court was, as Lord Bingham of Cornhill explained
    in paragraph [1] of the judgment:

    "1. The issues in this appeal are whether live human embryos created by
    cell nuclear replacement (CNR) fall outside the regulatory scope of the
    Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990 and whether licensing the creation of such embryos is prohibited by section 3(3)(d) of that Act."

    In short, the case would turn on the precise meaning of word "embryo".
    You believe that they need merely lookup the word "embryo" in a
    dictionary, determine whether or not the CNR process creates something
    that meets that definition and the judgment will follow therefrom.

    No, the Act can be its own dictionary, and it goes to the trouble of
    defining what it means by 'embryo' in its very first Section.

    There is no need or justification to look elsewhere. If an Act said
    'the term hippopotamus as used herein means a red telephone' then it
    means what it says regardless of any external sources.

    But let us look at what they actually did.

    For background, the appellant, acting on behalf of the pressure group Pro-Life, argued before the House of Lords that because CNR was a new
    process it was not covered by the 1990 Act and therefore the Human Fertilisation and Embryology Authority did not have the authority under
    the Act to licence research involving CNR.  It pointed out
    that in s1 of the Act an embryo regulated by the Act is defined as 'a
    live human embryo where fertilisation is complete' and that CNR does not involve a process of fertilisation.

    Well, that's got nothing to do with the definition of 'embryo' at all
    but rather with the factual matter of whether fertilisation had taken
    place. That's not a matter of interpretation at all.

    It should be noted, before continuing, that the House of Lords applied
    the purposive approach to interpreting the Act and explained why they
    had done so.

    Selected text from the judgment with paragraph numbers shown:

    LORD BINGHAM OF CORNHILL

        8. The basic task of the court is to ascertain and give effect to
    the true meaning of what Parliament has said in the enactment to be construed. But that is not to say that attention should be confined and
    a literal interpretation given to the particular provisions which give
    rise to difficulty.

    I've said all along that where the Literal Rule produces a difficulty
    you can go on to other rules of interpretation. But you can't where it doesn't.

    Such an approach not only encourages immense
    prolixity in drafting

    <Snipped immense prolixity in post, except for>

    "Of course it is true that the words used, even in their literal sense,
    are the primary, and ordinarily the most reliable, source of
    interpreting the meaning of any writing: be it a statute, a contract, or anything else.

    Thank you, Lord Steyn. That's the Literal Rule.

    The literal rule of Statutory interpretation is well established and
    has to be followed.

    Oh no it doesn't.

    Judges are not free to amend the law by changing the
    clear intention of Parliament expressed in the words it used.

    We are a common law jurisdiction.  Judges are well within their
    capabilities and rights to clarify the law with case law.

    Clarify, not change.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Roger Hayter@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 24 20:38:34 2023
    On 24 Oct 2023 at 15:29:39 BST, "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote:

    On 24/10/2023 12:07, Simon Parker wrote:
    On 17/10/2023 09:39, Norman Wells wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 22:36, Fredxx wrote:
    On 16/10/2023 19:10, Norman Wells wrote:

    Why are you concerned just with cases that go to appeal? The lower
    courts have to decide such things too where necessary.

    I can see where your going wrong. Where a case does go to an upper
    court then precedents are made from those interpretation and meaning
    of words.

    No, that's 'binding' precedents. All court decisions are precedents,

    "All court decisions are precedents", you say?

    "*All* court decisions"?

    Yes, of course. The word precedent simply means coming before.
    I have to assume you were absent when the hierarchy of courts and the
    doctrine of precedent was being discussed at law school as neither the
    Magistrates' Court nor the County Court have the power to set precedent
    nor can they overrule precedent set in previous cases.

    You're confusing 'precedents' with 'binding precedents'. Not all
    precedents are binding, only those from higher courts, but they are precedents nevertheless.

    Even the Supreme Court, ie the highest court in the land that isn't
    bound by anything, 'relies on precedents — that is, earlier laws or decisions that provide some example or rule to guide them in the case
    they're actually deciding'.

    https://www.merriam-webster.com/dictionary/precedent#:~:text=A%20precedent%20is%20something%20that,case%20they're%20actually%20deciding.

    but the lower courts' decisions are not binding so they don't have to
    be followed. Nevertheless, it's not a free-for-all with all the lower
    courts reinventing the wheel and deciding the same point willy-nilly
    and however they want if it comes before them. They will consider the
    decisions in similar level courts and will attempt to reconcile their
    own decisions with those of other courts however they can.

    Sometimes those definitions change and don't follow your dictionary
    definitions.

    Then, in the words of Lord Simmons I've referred to previously, it is:

    "a naked usurpation of the legislative function under the thin
    disguise of interpretation".

    Be that as it may, your understanding of Statutory Interpretation
    remains mistaken.

    Absolutely not.

    Perhaps it will help if I provide two sample cases and post selected
    snippets from the judgments to enable you to see how the process works,
    so you can see that it is nothing like you think it is. (Free clue: in
    neither case is a dictionary consulted.)

    The first case is Regina v Secretary of State for Health (Respondent) ex
    parte Quintavalle (on behalf of Pro-Life Alliance) (Appellant) [2003]
    UKHL 13 [1]

    The decision before the court was, as Lord Bingham of Cornhill explained
    in paragraph [1] of the judgment:

    "1. The issues in this appeal are whether live human embryos created by
    cell nuclear replacement (CNR) fall outside the regulatory scope of the
    Human Fertilisation and Embryology Act 1990 and whether licensing the
    creation of such embryos is prohibited by section 3(3)(d) of that Act."

    In short, the case would turn on the precise meaning of word "embryo".
    You believe that they need merely lookup the word "embryo" in a
    dictionary, determine whether or not the CNR process creates something
    that meets that definition and the judgment will follow therefrom.

    No, the Act can be its own dictionary, and it goes to the trouble of
    defining what it means by 'embryo' in its very first Section.

    There is no need or justification to look elsewhere. If an Act said
    'the term hippopotamus as used herein means a red telephone' then it
    means what it says regardless of any external sources.

    But let us look at what they actually did.

    For background, the appellant, acting on behalf of the pressure group
    Pro-Life, argued before the House of Lords that because CNR was a new
    process it was not covered by the 1990 Act and therefore the Human
    Fertilisation and Embryology Authority did not have the authority under
    the Act to licence research involving CNR. It pointed out
    that in s1 of the Act an embryo regulated by the Act is defined as 'a
    live human embryo where fertilisation is complete' and that CNR does not
    involve a process of fertilisation.

    Well, that's got nothing to do with the definition of 'embryo' at all
    but rather with the factual matter of whether fertilisation had taken
    place. That's not a matter of interpretation at all.

    I think you rather miss the whole point of the case; with nuclear replacement *no* fertilisation takes place at all (because the nucleus is diploid and has never been near any gametes). So the decision deliberately contradicts the plain words of the statute. This must be worrying to you, with your schema of statutory interpretation. Or maybe you'll just say they're wrong??

    snk;




    --
    Roger Hayter

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From billy bookcase@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Tue Oct 24 23:57:50 2023
    "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote in message news:kpq2mjFsi0tU3@mid.individual.net...

    On 24/10/2023 12:07, Simon Parker wrote:

    We are a common law jurisdiction. Judges are well within their
    capabilities and rights to clarify the law with case law.

    Clarify, not change.



    But if it isn't going to change anything, then what exactly
    is the point of clarification ?


    bb

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From billy bookcase@21:1/5 to Norman Wells on Wed Oct 25 13:42:23 2023
    "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote in message news:kps2uaFascfU1@mid.individual.net...
    On 24/10/2023 23:57, billy bookcase wrote:
    "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote in message
    news:kpq2mjFsi0tU3@mid.individual.net...

    On 24/10/2023 12:07, Simon Parker wrote:

    We are a common law jurisdiction. Judges are well within their
    capabilities and rights to clarify the law with case law.

    Clarify, not change.

    But if it isn't going to change anything, then what exactly
    is the point of clarification ?

    To clarify, obviously. For the avoidance of doubt.

    So there was doubt before, in the interpretion of a particular law,
    which no longer exists following clarification.

    And you don't regard that, as a change ?


    bb







    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to billy bookcase on Wed Oct 25 17:08:35 2023
    On 25/10/2023 13:42, billy bookcase wrote:
    "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote in message news:kps2uaFascfU1@mid.individual.net...
    On 24/10/2023 23:57, billy bookcase wrote:
    "Norman Wells" <hex@unseen.ac.am> wrote in message
    news:kpq2mjFsi0tU3@mid.individual.net...

    On 24/10/2023 12:07, Simon Parker wrote:

    We are a common law jurisdiction. Judges are well within their
    capabilities and rights to clarify the law with case law.

    Clarify, not change.

    But if it isn't going to change anything, then what exactly
    is the point of clarification ?

    To clarify, obviously. For the avoidance of doubt.

    So there was doubt before, in the interpretion of a particular law,
    which no longer exists following clarification.

    And you don't regard that, as a change ?

    Not necessarily, no. It's a clarification.

    To take a hypothetical example, if a Statute were to say a Notice of
    Intended Prosecution must be served on the registered keeper of a
    vehicle within 14 days of the detection of the offence, it would be a clarification to decide when exactly the 'detection' of the offence is
    deemed to be, eg the instant the speed camera flashes, when a human
    registers that and looks at the evidence, or when?

    It would also be a clarification if a court were to decide by when
    exactly the NIP has to be served, eg by the same time on the fourteenth
    day as the offence occurred, or any time up to midnight on the
    fourteenth day.

    Both would be matters of interpretation that clarify rather than alter.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Tim Jackson@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 26 15:08:25 2023
    On Tue, 24 Oct 2023 15:29:39 +0100, Norman Wells wrote...

    I've said all along that where the Literal Rule produces a difficulty
    you can go on to other rules of interpretation. But you can't where it doesn't.

    Prior to Brexit, it often happened that the literal rule did indeed
    produce a difficulty. A literal reading of the UK words clashed with EU
    law.

    In that case, back in 1972 the UK Parliament had said what the courts
    should do.

    Quote:
    "The European Communities Act 1972 was the piece of
    legislation that brought the UK into the Europe Union:
    **it gives EU law supremacy over UK national law.**

    A large amount of EU law effective in the UK currently
    relies on the 1972 Act."

    https://tinyurl.com/2s7p22z9 (Institute for Government)

    This is the reason why the courts often applied a purposive construction instead of a literal one. They had been instructed by the UK Parliament
    to treat EU law as supreme. So they interpreted UK laws in a way that
    would achieve that purpose.

    That's how the UK courts arrived at "the author's own intellectual
    creation".


    So what about the position after Brexit? You might think we are no
    longer constrained to follow EU law. The UK parliament and Supreme
    Court are free to do what they want.

    Well, yes, that's right. But in many areas, they haven't yet taken
    advantage of that freedom.

    Meanwhile, the UK Parliament has provided that the same rules should
    continue to apply after Brexit, unless and until changed.

    Further quote, following on from the one above:
    "The [European Communities] Act is repealed by the EU
    Withdrawal Act 2018 although in reality this is more
    of a 'copy and paste' act that transfers EU regulation
    and law onto the UK statute book."

    Pending any change, expect to hear more court decisions which apply "the author's own intellectual creation".

    --
    Tim Jackson
    news@timjackson.invalid
    (Change '.invalid' to '.plus.com' to reply direct)

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Mark Goodge@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 26 16:40:52 2023
    On Thu, 26 Oct 2023 15:08:25 +0100, Tim Jackson <news@timjackson.invalid> wrote:

    On Tue, 24 Oct 2023 15:29:39 +0100, Norman Wells wrote...

    I've said all along that where the Literal Rule produces a difficulty
    you can go on to other rules of interpretation. But you can't where it
    doesn't.

    Prior to Brexit, it often happened that the literal rule did indeed
    produce a difficulty. A literal reading of the UK words clashed with EU
    law.

    In that case, back in 1972 the UK Parliament had said what the courts
    should do.

    Quote:
    "The European Communities Act 1972 was the piece of
    legislation that brought the UK into the Europe Union:
    **it gives EU law supremacy over UK national law.**

    A large amount of EU law effective in the UK currently
    relies on the 1972 Act."

    https://tinyurl.com/2s7p22z9 (Institute for Government)

    This is the reason why the courts often applied a purposive construction >instead of a literal one. They had been instructed by the UK Parliament
    to treat EU law as supreme. So they interpreted UK laws in a way that
    would achieve that purpose.

    And, of course, the reason why the government could leave it to the courts
    is because the UK (or, at least, England and Wales) has a common law jurisdiction. If we did not, then parliament would have had to painstakingly amend all of UK law which conflicted with EU law so as to remove the
    conflict. I'm not convinced that would have been better.

    That's how the UK courts arrived at "the author's own intellectual
    creation".

    And if we didn't have a common law jurisdiction, then parliament would have legislated that into existence. Either way, it would be what we have.

    Mark

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Tim Jackson on Thu Oct 26 16:12:02 2023
    On 26/10/2023 15:08, Tim Jackson wrote:
    On Tue, 24 Oct 2023 15:29:39 +0100, Norman Wells wrote...

    I've said all along that where the Literal Rule produces a difficulty
    you can go on to other rules of interpretation. But you can't where it
    doesn't.

    Prior to Brexit, it often happened that the literal rule did indeed
    produce a difficulty. A literal reading of the UK words clashed with EU
    law.

    In that case, back in 1972 the UK Parliament had said what the courts
    should do.

    Quote:
    "The European Communities Act 1972 was the piece of
    legislation that brought the UK into the Europe Union:
    **it gives EU law supremacy over UK national law.**

    A large amount of EU law effective in the UK currently
    relies on the 1972 Act."

    https://tinyurl.com/2s7p22z9 (Institute for Government)

    This is the reason why the courts often applied a purposive construction instead of a literal one. They had been instructed by the UK Parliament
    to treat EU law as supreme. So they interpreted UK laws in a way that
    would achieve that purpose.

    That's how the UK courts arrived at "the author's own intellectual
    creation".


    So what about the position after Brexit? You might think we are no
    longer constrained to follow EU law. The UK parliament and Supreme
    Court are free to do what they want.

    Well, yes, that's right. But in many areas, they haven't yet taken
    advantage of that freedom.

    Meanwhile, the UK Parliament has provided that the same rules should
    continue to apply after Brexit, unless and until changed.

    Further quote, following on from the one above:
    "The [European Communities] Act is repealed by the EU
    Withdrawal Act 2018 although in reality this is more
    of a 'copy and paste' act that transfers EU regulation
    and law onto the UK statute book."

    Pending any change, expect to hear more court decisions which apply "the author's own intellectual creation".

    No wonder we voted to leave.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Norman Wells@21:1/5 to Mark Goodge on Thu Oct 26 17:29:27 2023
    On 26/10/2023 16:40, Mark Goodge wrote:
    On Thu, 26 Oct 2023 15:08:25 +0100, Tim Jackson <news@timjackson.invalid> wrote:

    On Tue, 24 Oct 2023 15:29:39 +0100, Norman Wells wrote...

    I've said all along that where the Literal Rule produces a difficulty
    you can go on to other rules of interpretation. But you can't where it
    doesn't.

    Prior to Brexit, it often happened that the literal rule did indeed
    produce a difficulty. A literal reading of the UK words clashed with EU
    law.

    In that case, back in 1972 the UK Parliament had said what the courts
    should do.

    Quote:
    "The European Communities Act 1972 was the piece of
    legislation that brought the UK into the Europe Union:
    **it gives EU law supremacy over UK national law.**

    A large amount of EU law effective in the UK currently
    relies on the 1972 Act."

    https://tinyurl.com/2s7p22z9 (Institute for Government)

    This is the reason why the courts often applied a purposive construction
    instead of a literal one. They had been instructed by the UK Parliament
    to treat EU law as supreme. So they interpreted UK laws in a way that
    would achieve that purpose.

    And, of course, the reason why the government could leave it to the courts
    is because the UK (or, at least, England and Wales) has a common law jurisdiction. If we did not, then parliament would have had to painstakingly amend all of UK law which conflicted with EU law so as to remove the conflict. I'm not convinced that would have been better.

    It seems you have a serious misunderstanding of what common law is.

    Perhaps this will help:

    "The common law is the law declared by judges, derived from custom and precedent. It originated with the legal reforms of King Henry II in the
    12th century and was called “common” because it applied equally across
    the whole country. The doctrine of binding precedent, whereby courts
    follow and apply the principles declared in previous cases decided by
    more senior courts, known as “courts of record”, is also known by the
    Latin expression “stare decisis”.

    The common law includes both substantive rules, such as the offence of
    murder, and procedural ones, such as court procedure rules derived from
    the inherent jurisdiction of the court.

    Common law rules may be superseded or replaced by legislation, which is
    said to “trump” or take precedence over the common law. Offences of
    theft, for example, based on the old common law offence of larceny, are
    now governed by the Theft Acts 1968, 1978 etc; and the original
    penalties for murder (though not the offence itself) were replaced by
    statutes such as the Homicide Act 1957.

    There is a limit to the extent to which common law judges, however
    creative or “activist”, can reform an out-of-date law, particularly if
    it derives from a statute. In such circumstances, only Parliament can
    change the law. The need for such a change often follows a period of
    research and consultation by the Law Commission, which was set up to
    review and propose reform to old or inadequate laws."

    https://www.iclr.co.uk/knowledge/topics/the-english-legal-system/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)