• Why all Europeans today are descendants of all Europeans in 1000 AD who

    From HWynn@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 5 12:49:47 2021
    I read once that all modern Europeans are descended from Charlemagne. I later saw a video on Youtube, "Is Everyone a Descendant of Royalty?" by Matt Baker, and he explained things clearly, so I scanned through the first 3 papers he used as sources,
    couldn't understand Joseph Chan's papers from Yale (involving statistical formulas that are beyond my ken), but was able to mostly comprehend this article: https://journals.plos.org/plosbiology/article/file?id=10.1371%2Fjournal.pbio.1001555&type=printable

    The Discussion basically states that, from 1000 years ago, the percentage of shared ancestors between two modern Europeans at least 2000 km apart would be about 3% (1/32). This is based on analyzing shared segments of autosomal DNA from about 2300
    modern Europeans.

    The hypothetical number of each European's ancestors (assuming no "pedigree collapse", endogamy, etc) 1000 years ago is about 2 to the 33rd power, or 10 billion ancestors. 3% of 10 billion is still 312,500,000 ancestors, which would have exceeded the
    estimated population of the world in 1000 AD (about 310 million people).

    In addition, beyond 8 generations, we cannot determine contributions to our autosomal DNA from more distant ancestors, so 3% of ancestry in common (they exclude statistically the false positives- or recent long distance matches) suggests that common 1000
    year old ancestors were present multiple times in each person's lineage.

    Therefore, it is easy for me to see that all modern Europeans (including those with European ancestry outside of Europe) are descended from all Europeans (Iberian peninsula to Russia) who left descendants. The paper estimates that 80% left descendants.
    I understand that most people would not be able to trace their lineage to Charlemagne, (748-814). That's what Medieval genealogy can do. We are also descended from all of the serfs and slaves....and pirates, etc.

    What are your thoughts?

    (I am half European and half East Asian, so I conclude that I'm descended from Charlemagne and Emperor Taizong of the Tang Dynasty). 😉

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to HWynn on Wed Nov 10 12:02:23 2021
    On Friday, November 5, 2021 at 8:49:49 PM UTC+1, HWynn wrote:
    I read once that all modern Europeans are descended from Charlemagne. I later saw a video on Youtube, "Is Everyone a Descendant of Royalty?" by Matt Baker, and he explained things clearly, so I scanned through the first 3 papers he used as sources,
    couldn't understand Joseph Chan's papers from Yale (involving statistical formulas that are beyond my ken), but was able to mostly comprehend this article: https://journals.plos.org/plosbiology/article/file?id=10.1371%2Fjournal.pbio.1001555&type=
    printable

    The Discussion basically states that, from 1000 years ago, the percentage of shared ancestors between two modern Europeans at least 2000 km apart would be about 3% (1/32). This is based on analyzing shared segments of autosomal DNA from about 2300
    modern Europeans.

    The hypothetical number of each European's ancestors (assuming no "pedigree collapse", endogamy, etc) 1000 years ago is about 2 to the 33rd power, or 10 billion ancestors. 3% of 10 billion is still 312,500,000 ancestors, which would have exceeded the
    estimated population of the world in 1000 AD (about 310 million people).

    In addition, beyond 8 generations, we cannot determine contributions to our autosomal DNA from more distant ancestors, so 3% of ancestry in common (they exclude statistically the false positives- or recent long distance matches) suggests that common
    1000 year old ancestors were present multiple times in each person's lineage.

    Therefore, it is easy for me to see that all modern Europeans (including those with European ancestry outside of Europe) are descended from all Europeans (Iberian peninsula to Russia) who left descendants. The paper estimates that 80% left descendants.
    I understand that most people would not be able to trace their lineage to Charlemagne, (748-814). That's what Medieval genealogy can do. We are also descended from all of the serfs and slaves....and pirates, etc.

    What are your thoughts?

    (I am half European and half East Asian, so I conclude that I'm descended from Charlemagne and Emperor Taizong of the Tang Dynasty). 😉

    This type of thing has been discussed before here. Such discussions can get stuck in circles arguing about which assumptions to use, but that just seems to miss the main point which is that the assumptions move the probabilities around a bit but don't
    change the basic conclusion. Maybe these two comments sum up what I think is worth saying:

    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type of issue
    and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.

    2. It also has to be said, just to be clear, that this type of reasoning is not genealogy and it is not identifying exact connections between people. It is purely statistical, and the probabilities are based purely on rough guesses. The way I see it,
    genealogy is about identifying real trails of connections between people.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Will Johnson@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 10 14:46:03 2021
    This idea that we *cannot* determine contributions to our Autosomal DNA beyond 8 generations, is old thinking.

    Many pieces of DNA appear to be "sticky", passed down intact through multiple generations.
    It is true that you cannot determine contributions for *all* your ancestors at that extreme, however, you may be able to determine a DNA contribution from *some* ancestor beyond 8 generations.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Ian Goddard@21:1/5 to lancast...@gmail.com on Wed Nov 10 23:36:48 2021
    On 10/11/2021 20:02, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type of
    issue and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.

    In the real world growth tends to be sigmoidal rather than exponential.
    The early part of a sigmoidal curve looks as if it's exponential but it
    isn't. The apparent exponential genealogical "growth" is backwards with
    the number of ancestors doubling with each generation. The number of genealogical roles doubles. The growth of actual ancestors is reduced
    by pedigree collapse. Geographical and social factors will limit it.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Will Johnson@21:1/5 to Ian Goddard on Thu Nov 11 06:55:22 2021
    On Wednesday, November 10, 2021 at 3:35:38 PM UTC-8, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 10/11/2021 20:02, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type of
    issue and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.
    In the real world growth tends to be sigmoidal rather than exponential.
    The early part of a sigmoidal curve looks as if it's exponential but it isn't. The apparent exponential genealogical "growth" is backwards with
    the number of ancestors doubling with each generation. The number of genealogical roles doubles. The growth of actual ancestors is reduced
    by pedigree collapse. Geographical and social factors will limit it.

    In some places very much so.
    I've been working with several adoptees from Prince Edward Island and the degree of endogamy in these smaller fishing villages is enormous.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Darrell E. Larocque@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 11 07:44:31 2021
    You CAN be related to a ridiculous number of shared Europeans if you go back far enough.

    You CAN'T, however, prove exactly who they all were by name and of course these numbers don't account for multiple couples having multiple descendants within the same person's ancestry.

    You see, the stories of those who came before us are far, far more valuable than genetic material and cold, hard calculated numbers. The fact that I can connect with my ancestors in some meaningful way through what they did and their stories is why I
    have been doing this for over 25 years now!

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to wjhons...@gmail.com on Fri Nov 12 15:07:28 2021
    On Wednesday, November 10, 2021 at 11:46:05 PM UTC+1, wjhons...@gmail.com wrote:
    This idea that we *cannot* determine contributions to our Autosomal DNA beyond 8 generations, is old thinking.

    Many pieces of DNA appear to be "sticky", passed down intact through multiple generations.
    It is true that you cannot determine contributions for *all* your ancestors at that extreme, however, you may be able to determine a DNA contribution from *some* ancestor beyond 8 generations.

    My rule of thumb based on what I've seen is that our ability to trace common ancestry will cut out somewhere around the range 1750-1850. It all depends how big the chunks of DNA were along each line of descent. So this cuts both ways. Some people you
    expect to share DNA with might not be good matches, or might not even show up at all. Over time, I've got the impression that there are a small number of ancestors around 1800 from whom I got a relatively big chunk of DNA, and then others from that
    period who leave almost no trace.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to Ian Goddard on Fri Nov 12 14:59:53 2021
    On Thursday, November 11, 2021 at 12:35:38 AM UTC+1, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 10/11/2021 20:02, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type of
    issue and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.
    In the real world growth tends to be sigmoidal rather than exponential.
    The early part of a sigmoidal curve looks as if it's exponential but it isn't. The apparent exponential genealogical "growth" is backwards with
    the number of ancestors doubling with each generation. The number of genealogical roles doubles. The growth of actual ancestors is reduced
    by pedigree collapse. Geographical and social factors will limit it.

    But pedigree collapse does not matter for this specific question. What is important is the enormous number of "boxes" in your family tree at a certain generation, say 20, or 30 or 50. It does not really matter for this question whether the same people
    are filling several of those boxes.

    As I am sure we all realize it does not take many generations before the number of boxes is far much greater than the population of Europe, or indeed the world, at the time of whichever generation we are looking at. Each time we go one more generation
    the impact is massive. And you this swamps effects like pedigree collapse. At a certain point somewhere, depending which exact assumptions you use, probabilities of people NOT being in your tree (if they had descendants) rapidly drops to improbably tiny
    numbers. At a certain point all people who have descendants will be ancestors of all people today.

    Around about there we get the pointless discussions about how the geographical barriers between continents will slow things down a bit, and then you just add a few more generations and you can ignore those as well. But again, this is worth thinking about
    for genealogists, but not genealogy as such.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From HWynn@21:1/5 to Paulo Ricardo Canedo on Sun Nov 14 11:24:33 2021
    On Friday, November 12, 2021 at 6:40:38 PM UTC-6, Paulo Ricardo Canedo wrote:
    No pedigree collapse and no endogamy are unrealistic assumptions.
    Who are you responding to, Paolo Ricardo Canedo? I never said that there is no pedigree collapse and no endogamy.
    To Lancaster:
    I also mentioned that genealogy involves finding the trails to ancestors.
    I was merely making an observation about the relatedness of humans, after seeing a Youtube video and reading his sources.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paulo Ricardo Canedo@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 14 16:05:19 2021
    A domingo, 14 de novembro de 2021 à(s) 19:24:35 UTC, HWynn escreveu:
    On Friday, November 12, 2021 at 6:40:38 PM UTC-6, Paulo Ricardo Canedo wrote:
    No pedigree collapse and no endogamy are unrealistic assumptions.
    Who are you responding to, Paolo Ricardo Canedo? I never said that there is no pedigree collapse and no endogamy.
    To Lancaster:
    I also mentioned that genealogy involves finding the trails to ancestors.
    I was merely making an observation about the relatedness of humans, after seeing a Youtube video and reading his sources.
    You said "assuming no "pedigree collapse", endogamy, etc". I was just pointing out such assumptions are unrealistic. I am sure you already knew that, though.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Ian Goddard@21:1/5 to lancast...@gmail.com on Sun Nov 14 23:40:14 2021
    On 12/11/2021 22:59, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Thursday, November 11, 2021 at 12:35:38 AM UTC+1, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 10/11/2021 20:02, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type of
    issue and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.
    In the real world growth tends to be sigmoidal rather than exponential.
    The early part of a sigmoidal curve looks as if it's exponential but it
    isn't. The apparent exponential genealogical "growth" is backwards with
    the number of ancestors doubling with each generation. The number of
    genealogical roles doubles. The growth of actual ancestors is reduced
    by pedigree collapse. Geographical and social factors will limit it.

    But pedigree collapse does not matter for this specific question. What is important is the enormous number of "boxes" in your family tree at a certain generation, say 20, or 30 or 50. It does not really matter for this question whether the same people
    are filling several of those boxes.

    As I am sure we all realize it does not take many generations before the number of boxes is far much greater than the population of Europe, or indeed the world, at the time of whichever generation we are looking at. Each time we go one more generation
    the impact is massive. And you this swamps effects like pedigree collapse. At a certain point somewhere, depending which exact assumptions you use, probabilities of people NOT being in your tree (if they had descendants) rapidly drops to improbably tiny
    numbers. At a certain point all people who have descendants will be ancestors of all people today.

    Around about there we get the pointless discussions about how the geographical barriers between continents will slow things down a bit, and then you just add a few more generations and you can ignore those as well. But again, this is worth thinking
    about for genealogists, but not genealogy as such.

    The specific question in the OP referred to all present day Europeans
    being descendants of all Europeans from *1000 AD* who left descendants.

    Pedigree collapse is very germane to this issue. If, at some level,
    pedigree collapse reduces the number of distinct individual ancestors in
    a line by, say a sixth you don't get that back by going further back.
    That's the *minimum* loss in that line. In reality further collapse
    will eat into that further.

    I have a situation where one ancestor and the next three generations in
    the male line all married descendants of the same late C17th couple.
    The daughter of the last of these was my paternal grandmother's mother
    and, assuming that there is no pedigree collapse in lines I haven't
    traced fully pack to that level, the loss is indeed one sixth. As many
    of the surnames involved go back locally to the C14th the likelihood of
    further collapse in previous generations is high and there is known
    overlap into my paternal grandfather's mother's line as well. This is
    not exceptional; I found marriages in collateral lines.

    When we're talking about a cut-off in the medieval geographical
    boundaries *valleys* matter hereabouts as, of course, do boundaries
    between manors. Villages like these have a core of intermarrying
    families which grows only slowly by inward migrants. The migrants
    themselves come from communities with similar families - in fact I've
    even found incoming migrants (C18th) with common ancestors in their
    native community. Heavily multiple common descents back to 1000 AD may
    not my provable but certainly do not stretch credulity.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to Ian Goddard on Mon Nov 15 04:19:32 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 12:40:22 AM UTC+1, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 12/11/2021 22:59, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Thursday, November 11, 2021 at 12:35:38 AM UTC+1, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 10/11/2021 20:02, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type of
    issue and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.
    In the real world growth tends to be sigmoidal rather than exponential. >> The early part of a sigmoidal curve looks as if it's exponential but it >> isn't. The apparent exponential genealogical "growth" is backwards with >> the number of ancestors doubling with each generation. The number of
    genealogical roles doubles. The growth of actual ancestors is reduced
    by pedigree collapse. Geographical and social factors will limit it.

    But pedigree collapse does not matter for this specific question. What is important is the enormous number of "boxes" in your family tree at a certain generation, say 20, or 30 or 50. It does not really matter for this question whether the same
    people are filling several of those boxes.

    As I am sure we all realize it does not take many generations before the number of boxes is far much greater than the population of Europe, or indeed the world, at the time of whichever generation we are looking at. Each time we go one more
    generation the impact is massive. And you this swamps effects like pedigree collapse. At a certain point somewhere, depending which exact assumptions you use, probabilities of people NOT being in your tree (if they had descendants) rapidly drops to
    improbably tiny numbers. At a certain point all people who have descendants will be ancestors of all people today.

    Around about there we get the pointless discussions about how the geographical barriers between continents will slow things down a bit, and then you just add a few more generations and you can ignore those as well. But again, this is worth thinking
    about for genealogists, but not genealogy as such.

    The specific question in the OP referred to all present day Europeans
    being descendants of all Europeans from *1000 AD* who left descendants.

    Pedigree collapse is very germane to this issue. If, at some level,
    pedigree collapse reduces the number of distinct individual ancestors in
    a line by, say a sixth you don't get that back by going further back.
    That's the *minimum* loss in that line. In reality further collapse
    will eat into that further.

    I have a situation where one ancestor and the next three generations in
    the male line all married descendants of the same late C17th couple.
    The daughter of the last of these was my paternal grandmother's mother
    and, assuming that there is no pedigree collapse in lines I haven't
    traced fully pack to that level, the loss is indeed one sixth. As many
    of the surnames involved go back locally to the C14th the likelihood of further collapse in previous generations is high and there is known
    overlap into my paternal grandfather's mother's line as well. This is
    not exceptional; I found marriages in collateral lines.

    When we're talking about a cut-off in the medieval geographical
    boundaries *valleys* matter hereabouts as, of course, do boundaries
    between manors. Villages like these have a core of intermarrying
    families which grows only slowly by inward migrants. The migrants
    themselves come from communities with similar families - in fact I've
    even found incoming migrants (C18th) with common ancestors in their
    native community. Heavily multiple common descents back to 1000 AD may
    not my provable but certainly do not stretch credulity.

    Ian yes indeed. To be clear I am sure all of us who've looked into it accept that pedigree collapse is important and models of this topic which don't include a very large amount of pedigree collapse are not just unrealistic but literally impossible.
    However, exponential growth is really really ... exponential. Also, there are about 30 generations back to 1000, and when things are working exponentially, that is enough to mean an extremely large number of ancestors. For the idea of isolated valleys to
    really succeed to keep us all from sharing common ancestors we would need absolute isolation. There could not be even one person in your enormous 30 generation family tree who moved from elsewhere.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From taf@21:1/5 to Ian Goddard on Mon Nov 15 07:39:55 2021
    On Sunday, November 14, 2021 at 3:40:22 PM UTC-8, Ian Goddard wrote:

    Pedigree collapse is very germane to this issue. If, at some level,
    pedigree collapse reduces the number of distinct individual ancestors in
    a line by, say a sixth you don't get that back by going further back.

    When we're talking about a cut-off in the medieval geographical
    boundaries *valleys* matter hereabouts as, of course, do boundaries
    between manors. Villages like these have a core of intermarrying
    families which grows only slowly by inward migrants. The migrants
    themselves come from communities with similar families - in fact I've
    even found incoming migrants (C18th) with common ancestors in their
    native community. Heavily multiple common descents back to 1000 AD may
    not my provable but certainly do not stretch credulity.

    I don't think most genealogists have a grasp on the degree to which pedigree collapse sometimes took place. I have an immigrant from Alsace whose pedigee, 200 years before immigration, includes the same surname 6 times, and another 5 times. This is at
    the starting date of apparent registers, so we can't say for certain they were related, but they certainly seem to be, and that is just in the male line. If one applies a similar probability of linking to the family to those not having the surname, there
    is every reason to believe that by far the majority of the ancestors at this remove shared the bloodline of this same village family, with the same true from pretty-near every other family in the pedigree at this point in time. We and not talking just a
    1/6 reduction in ancestors by such a scenario, but more like 1/6 the number of ancestors one would calculate. In a model with such high endogamy coupled with low immigration, and the immigrants often coming from similar villages, it is easy to envision
    a scenario whereby a 1000 AD Laplander's descendants do not include a particular Sardinian, or a bloodline arising among the Crimean Tatars not spreading all the way to an Anglesey village.

    Political, religious and social divisions would also have had significant impact on immigration into and out of the gene pool that is not so readily hand-waved away as some would like - do we really think that Queen Elizabeth descends from every single
    Ruthenian dirt farmer, Algeciras imam and Venice Jewish cobler living in 1000 who has descendants? I certainly don't.

    taf

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to lancast...@gmail.com on Mon Nov 15 07:17:22 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 7:19:33 AM UTC-5, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 12:40:22 AM UTC+1, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 12/11/2021 22:59, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Thursday, November 11, 2021 at 12:35:38 AM UTC+1, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 10/11/2021 20:02, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    1. It is interesting and true that our brains do not easily handle the concept of exponential growth. Indeed we kind of saw that during the early COVID discussions. And as a result, we are all surprised the first time we think through this type
    of issue and realize how recently we must all share common ancestors.
    In the real world growth tends to be sigmoidal rather than exponential. >> The early part of a sigmoidal curve looks as if it's exponential but it >> isn't. The apparent exponential genealogical "growth" is backwards with >> the number of ancestors doubling with each generation. The number of
    genealogical roles doubles. The growth of actual ancestors is reduced >> by pedigree collapse. Geographical and social factors will limit it.

    But pedigree collapse does not matter for this specific question. What is important is the enormous number of "boxes" in your family tree at a certain generation, say 20, or 30 or 50. It does not really matter for this question whether the same
    people are filling several of those boxes.

    As I am sure we all realize it does not take many generations before the number of boxes is far much greater than the population of Europe, or indeed the world, at the time of whichever generation we are looking at. Each time we go one more
    generation the impact is massive. And you this swamps effects like pedigree collapse. At a certain point somewhere, depending which exact assumptions you use, probabilities of people NOT being in your tree (if they had descendants) rapidly drops to
    improbably tiny numbers. At a certain point all people who have descendants will be ancestors of all people today.

    Around about there we get the pointless discussions about how the geographical barriers between continents will slow things down a bit, and then you just add a few more generations and you can ignore those as well. But again, this is worth thinking
    about for genealogists, but not genealogy as such.

    The specific question in the OP referred to all present day Europeans being descendants of all Europeans from *1000 AD* who left descendants.

    Pedigree collapse is very germane to this issue. If, at some level, pedigree collapse reduces the number of distinct individual ancestors in
    a line by, say a sixth you don't get that back by going further back. That's the *minimum* loss in that line. In reality further collapse
    will eat into that further.

    I have a situation where one ancestor and the next three generations in the male line all married descendants of the same late C17th couple.
    The daughter of the last of these was my paternal grandmother's mother and, assuming that there is no pedigree collapse in lines I haven't
    traced fully pack to that level, the loss is indeed one sixth. As many
    of the surnames involved go back locally to the C14th the likelihood of further collapse in previous generations is high and there is known overlap into my paternal grandfather's mother's line as well. This is
    not exceptional; I found marriages in collateral lines.

    When we're talking about a cut-off in the medieval geographical
    boundaries *valleys* matter hereabouts as, of course, do boundaries between manors. Villages like these have a core of intermarrying
    families which grows only slowly by inward migrants. The migrants themselves come from communities with similar families - in fact I've
    even found incoming migrants (C18th) with common ancestors in their
    native community. Heavily multiple common descents back to 1000 AD may
    not my provable but certainly do not stretch credulity.
    Ian yes indeed. To be clear I am sure all of us who've looked into it accept that pedigree collapse is important and models of this topic which don't include a very large amount of pedigree collapse are not just unrealistic but literally impossible.
    However, exponential growth is really really ... exponential. Also, there are about 30 generations back to 1000, and when things are working exponentially, that is enough to mean an extremely large number of ancestors. For the idea of isolated valleys to
    really succeed to keep us all from sharing common ancestors we would need absolute isolation. There could not be even one person in your enormous 30 generation family tree who moved from elsewhere.

    What if the one person who moved into this sheltered valley was from an equally sheltered valley ([s/]he was the only person who ever left it)?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Will Johnson@21:1/5 to lancast...@gmail.com on Mon Nov 15 10:47:00 2021
    On Friday, November 12, 2021 at 3:07:30 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Wednesday, November 10, 2021 at 11:46:05 PM UTC+1, wjhons...@gmail.com wrote:

    My rule of thumb based on what I've seen is that our ability to trace common ancestry will cut out somewhere around the range 1750-1850. It all depends how big the chunks of DNA were along each line of descent. So this cuts both ways. Some people you
    expect to share DNA with might not be good matches, or might not even show up at all. Over time, I've got the impression that there are a small number of ancestors around 1800 from whom I got a relatively big chunk of DNA, and then others from that
    period who leave almost no trace.

    I always advise people to test their known relatives.
    Your third cousin, with whom you share no other near relatives (within say six generations) might be that one clue you need to break a brick-wall four generations back. Whom they match, and whom you match, should line up in a consistent way and allow
    triangulation backward to prove lines you did not yet know you match.

    It takes a lot of work, but it's possible.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 16 09:25:15 2021
    T24gMTYtTm92LTIxIDI6MzkgQU0sIHRhZiB3cm90ZToNCj4gT24gU3VuZGF5LCBOb3ZlbWJl ciAxNCwgMjAyMSBhdCAzOjQwOjIyIFBNIFVUQy04LCBJYW4gR29kZGFyZCB3cm90ZToNCj4+ DQo+PiBQZWRpZ3JlZSBjb2xsYXBzZSBpcyB2ZXJ5IGdlcm1hbmUgdG8gdGhpcyBpc3N1ZS4g SWYsIGF0IHNvbWUgbGV2ZWwsDQo+PiBwZWRpZ3JlZSBjb2xsYXBzZSByZWR1Y2VzIHRoZSBu dW1iZXIgb2YgZGlzdGluY3QgaW5kaXZpZHVhbCBhbmNlc3RvcnMgaW4NCj4+IGEgbGluZSBi eSwgc2F5IGEgc2l4dGggeW91IGRvbid0IGdldCB0aGF0IGJhY2sgYnkgZ29pbmcgZnVydGhl ciBiYWNrLg0KPiANCj4+IFdoZW4gd2UncmUgdGFsa2luZyBhYm91dCBhIGN1dC1vZmYgaW4g dGhlIG1lZGlldmFsIGdlb2dyYXBoaWNhbA0KPj4gYm91bmRhcmllcyAqdmFsbGV5cyogbWF0 dGVyIGhlcmVhYm91dHMgYXMsIG9mIGNvdXJzZSwgZG8gYm91bmRhcmllcw0KPj4gYmV0d2Vl biBtYW5vcnMuIFZpbGxhZ2VzIGxpa2UgdGhlc2UgaGF2ZSBhIGNvcmUgb2YgaW50ZXJtYXJy eWluZw0KPj4gZmFtaWxpZXMgd2hpY2ggZ3Jvd3Mgb25seSBzbG93bHkgYnkgaW53YXJkIG1p Z3JhbnRzLiBUaGUgbWlncmFudHMNCj4+IHRoZW1zZWx2ZXMgY29tZSBmcm9tIGNvbW11bml0 aWVzIHdpdGggc2ltaWxhciBmYW1pbGllcyAtIGluIGZhY3QgSSd2ZQ0KPj4gZXZlbiBmb3Vu ZCBpbmNvbWluZyBtaWdyYW50cyAoQzE4dGgpIHdpdGggY29tbW9uIGFuY2VzdG9ycyBpbiB0 aGVpcg0KPj4gbmF0aXZlIGNvbW11bml0eS4gSGVhdmlseSBtdWx0aXBsZSBjb21tb24gZGVz Y2VudHMgYmFjayB0byAxMDAwIEFEIG1heQ0KPj4gbm90IG15IHByb3ZhYmxlIGJ1dCBjZXJ0 YWlubHkgZG8gbm90IHN0cmV0Y2ggY3JlZHVsaXR5Lg0KPiANCj4gSSBkb24ndCB0aGluayBt b3N0IGdlbmVhbG9naXN0cyBoYXZlIGEgZ3Jhc3Agb24gdGhlIGRlZ3JlZSB0byB3aGljaCBw ZWRpZ3JlZSBjb2xsYXBzZSBzb21ldGltZXMgdG9vayBwbGFjZS4gIEkgaGF2ZSBhbiBpbW1p Z3JhbnQgZnJvbSBBbHNhY2Ugd2hvc2UgcGVkaWdlZSwgMjAwIHllYXJzIGJlZm9yZSBpbW1p Z3JhdGlvbiwgaW5jbHVkZXMgdGhlIHNhbWUgc3VybmFtZSA2IHRpbWVzLCBhbmQgYW5vdGhl ciA1IHRpbWVzLiBUaGlzIGlzIGF0IHRoZSBzdGFydGluZyBkYXRlIG9mIGFwcGFyZW50IHJl Z2lzdGVycywgc28gd2UgY2FuJ3Qgc2F5IGZvciBjZXJ0YWluIHRoZXkgd2VyZSByZWxhdGVk LCBidXQgdGhleSBjZXJ0YWlubHkgc2VlbSB0byBiZSwgYW5kIHRoYXQgaXMganVzdCBpbiB0 aGUgbWFsZSBsaW5lLiBJZiBvbmUgYXBwbGllcyBhIHNpbWlsYXIgcHJvYmFiaWxpdHkgb2Yg bGlua2luZyB0byB0aGUgZmFtaWx5IHRvIHRob3NlIG5vdCBoYXZpbmcgdGhlIHN1cm5hbWUs IHRoZXJlIGlzIGV2ZXJ5IHJlYXNvbiB0byBiZWxpZXZlIHRoYXQgYnkgZmFyIHRoZSBtYWpv cml0eSBvZiB0aGUgYW5jZXN0b3JzIGF0IHRoaXMgcmVtb3ZlIHNoYXJlZCB0aGUgYmxvb2Rs aW5lIG9mIHRoaXMgc2FtZSB2aWxsYWdlIGZhbWlseSwgd2l0aCB0aGUgc2FtZSB0cnVlIGZy b20gcHJldHR5LW5lYXIgZXZlcnkgb3RoZXIgZmFtaWx5IGluIHRoZSBwZWRpZ3JlZSBhdCB0 aGlzIHBvaW50IGluIHRpbWUuICBXZSBhbmQgbm90IHRhbGtpbmcganVzdCBhIDEvNiByZWR1 Y3Rpb24gaW4gYW5jZXN0b3JzIGJ5IHN1Y2ggYSBzY2VuYXJpbywgYnV0IG1vcmUgbGlrZSAx LzYgdGhlIG51bWJlciBvZiBhbmNlc3RvcnMgb25lIHdvdWxkIGNhbGN1bGF0ZS4gIEluIGEg bW9kZWwgd2l0aCBzdWNoIGhpZ2ggZW5kb2dhbXkgY291cGxlZCB3aXRoIGxvdyBpbW1pZ3Jh dGlvbiwgYW5kIHRoZSBpbW1pZ3JhbnRzIG9mdGVuIGNvbWluZyBmcm9tIHNpbWlsYXIgdmls bGFnZXMsIGl0IGlzIGVhc3kgdG8gZW52aXNpb24gYSBzY2VuYXJpbyB3aGVyZWJ5IGEgMTAw MCBBRCBMYXBsYW5kZXIncyBkZXNjZW5kYW50cyBkbyBub3QgaW5jbHVkZSBhIHBhcnRpY3Vs YXIgU2FyZGluaWFuLCBvciBhIGJsb29kbGluZSBhcmlzaW5nIGFtb25nIHRoZSBDcmltZWFu IFRhdGFycyBub3Qgc3ByZWFkaW5nIGFsbCB0aGUgd2F5IHRvIGFuIEFuZ2xlc2V5IHZpbGxh Z2UuDQo+IA0KPiBQb2xpdGljYWwsIHJlbGlnaW91cyBhbmQgc29jaWFsIGRpdmlzaW9ucyB3 b3VsZCBhbHNvIGhhdmUgaGFkIHNpZ25pZmljYW50IGltcGFjdCBvbiBpbW1pZ3JhdGlvbiBp bnRvIGFuZCBvdXQgb2YgdGhlIGdlbmUgcG9vbCB0aGF0IGlzIG5vdCBzbyByZWFkaWx5IGhh bmQtd2F2ZWQgYXdheSBhcyBzb21lIHdvdWxkIGxpa2UgLSBkbyB3ZSByZWFsbHkgdGhpbmsg dGhhdCBRdWVlbiBFbGl6YWJldGggZGVzY2VuZHMgZnJvbSBldmVyeSBzaW5nbGUgUnV0aGVu aWFuIGRpcnQgZmFybWVyLCBBbGdlY2lyYXMgaW1hbSBhbmQgVmVuaWNlIEpld2lzaCBjb2Js ZXIgbGl2aW5nIGluIDEwMDAgd2hvIGhhcyBkZXNjZW5kYW50cz8gSSBjZXJ0YWlubHkgZG9u J3QuDQoNCkkgZG9uJ3Qga25vdyBhYm91dCB0aGUgaW1hbSBhbmQgdGhlIGNvYmJsZXIsIGJ1 dCB0aGUgZGlydCBmYXJtZXIgaXMgDQpxdWl0ZSBwcm9iYWJseSBoZXIgYW5jZXN0b3IuIFRo ZSBxdWVlbiBoYXMgc29tZSBleG90aWMgKGJ5IHJveWFsIA0Kc3RhbmRhcmRzKSBlYXN0ZXJu LUV1cm9wZWFuIGFuY2VzdHJ5IHRocm91Z2ggdGhlIG1vcmdhbmF0aWMgYW50ZWNlZGVudHMg DQpvZiBoZXIgcGF0ZXJuYWwgZ3JhbmRtb3RoZXIgTWEocil5IG9mIFRlY2suIFNoZSBhbHNv IGhhcyBhIGxvdCBvZiANCmdlbmV0aWMgaW5wdXQgZnJvbSBwZWFzYW50IGFuZCB0cmFkZXNt YW4gc3RvY2sgdGhyb3VnaCBoZXIgbWF0ZXJuYWwgDQphbmNlc3RyeS4gSGVyIGF1bnQtYnkt bWFycmlhZ2UgTWFyaW5hIG9mIEdyZWVjZSBkaWRuJ3Qgc25lZXIgYXQgaGVyIGxvdyANCmJy ZWVkaW5nIG91dCBvZiB0aGluIGFpci4NCg0KUGV0ZXIgU3Rld2FydA0K

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  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to taf on Mon Nov 15 14:33:13 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 4:39:56 PM UTC+1, taf wrote:
    On Sunday, November 14, 2021 at 3:40:22 PM UTC-8, Ian Goddard wrote:

    Pedigree collapse is very germane to this issue. If, at some level, pedigree collapse reduces the number of distinct individual ancestors in
    a line by, say a sixth you don't get that back by going further back.
    When we're talking about a cut-off in the medieval geographical
    boundaries *valleys* matter hereabouts as, of course, do boundaries between manors. Villages like these have a core of intermarrying
    families which grows only slowly by inward migrants. The migrants themselves come from communities with similar families - in fact I've
    even found incoming migrants (C18th) with common ancestors in their
    native community. Heavily multiple common descents back to 1000 AD may
    not my provable but certainly do not stretch credulity.
    I don't think most genealogists have a grasp on the degree to which pedigree collapse sometimes took place. I have an immigrant from Alsace whose pedigee, 200 years before immigration, includes the same surname 6 times, and another 5 times. This is at
    the starting date of apparent registers, so we can't say for certain they were related, but they certainly seem to be, and that is just in the male line. If one applies a similar probability of linking to the family to those not having the surname, there
    is every reason to believe that by far the majority of the ancestors at this remove shared the bloodline of this same village family, with the same true from pretty-near every other family in the pedigree at this point in time. We and not talking just a
    1/6 reduction in ancestors by such a scenario, but more like 1/6 the number of ancestors one would calculate. In a model with such high endogamy coupled with low immigration, and the immigrants often coming from similar villages, it is easy to envision a
    scenario whereby a 1000 AD Laplander's descendants do not include a particular Sardinian, or a bloodline arising among the Crimean Tatars not spreading all the way to an Anglesey village.

    Political, religious and social divisions would also have had significant impact on immigration into and out of the gene pool that is not so readily hand-waved away as some would like - do we really think that Queen Elizabeth descends from every single
    Ruthenian dirt farmer, Algeciras imam and Venice Jewish cobler living in 1000 who has descendants? I certainly don't.

    taf


    As I understand the history of such speculations though, 1000 is not a date being proposed by anyone as the time when all Europeans share all common ancestors. I think this is more like an estimate for the most recent ancestor for all living Europeans,
    or maybe even all living British people?

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  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to wjhons...@gmail.com on Mon Nov 15 14:36:13 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 7:47:02 PM UTC+1, wjhons...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Friday, November 12, 2021 at 3:07:30 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Wednesday, November 10, 2021 at 11:46:05 PM UTC+1, wjhons...@gmail.com wrote:

    My rule of thumb based on what I've seen is that our ability to trace common ancestry will cut out somewhere around the range 1750-1850. It all depends how big the chunks of DNA were along each line of descent. So this cuts both ways. Some people you
    expect to share DNA with might not be good matches, or might not even show up at all. Over time, I've got the impression that there are a small number of ancestors around 1800 from whom I got a relatively big chunk of DNA, and then others from that
    period who leave almost no trace.
    I always advise people to test their known relatives.
    Your third cousin, with whom you share no other near relatives (within say six generations) might be that one clue you need to break a brick-wall four generations back. Whom they match, and whom you match, should line up in a consistent way and allow
    triangulation backward to prove lines you did not yet know you match.

    It takes a lot of work, but it's possible.

    Yes I agree. It takes time, but this can help for example confirm or deny paper trails which are on the edge so to speak. I don't think I've ever seen anything which makes me believe this can get back to common ancestors earlier than about 1750 though?

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  • From Paulo Ricardo Canedo@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 15 16:19:31 2021
    I definitely have my doubts the average person in the Balkans, especially the Orthodox areas, is descended from a Western European of that era. Remember the Great Schism split much of the Balkans from Western Europe and Bosnia, while nominally Catholic,
    was not trusted. In addition, Croatia never appears to have seen many marriages with Western Europe, despite being Catholic. Contact reduced further with the Ottoman expansion.

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  • From taf@21:1/5 to pss...@optusnet.com.au on Mon Nov 15 16:48:01 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 2:25:22 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 16-Nov-21 2:39 AM, taf wrote:
    Political, religious and social divisions would also have had significant impact on immigration into and out of the gene pool that is not so readily hand-waved away as some would like - do we really think that Queen Elizabeth descends from every
    single Ruthenian dirt farmer, Algeciras imam and Venice Jewish cobler living in 1000 who has descendants? I certainly don't.
    I don't know about the imam and the cobbler, but the dirt farmer is
    quite probably her ancestor.

    I wouldn't question that she descends from many Ruthenian dirt-farmers, but I doubt she descends from every Ruthenian dirt farmer just because . . . statistics, as is the argument that commenced this thread.

    taf

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to taf on Tue Nov 16 12:24:48 2021
    On 16-Nov-21 11:48 AM, taf wrote:
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 2:25:22 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 16-Nov-21 2:39 AM, taf wrote:
    Political, religious and social divisions would also have had significant impact on immigration into and out of the gene pool that is not so readily hand-waved away as some would like - do we really think that Queen Elizabeth descends from every
    single Ruthenian dirt farmer, Algeciras imam and Venice Jewish cobler living in 1000 who has descendants? I certainly don't.
    I don't know about the imam and the cobbler, but the dirt farmer is
    quite probably her ancestor.

    I wouldn't question that she descends from many Ruthenian dirt-farmers, but I doubt she descends from every Ruthenian dirt farmer just because . . . statistics, as is the argument that commenced this thread.

    The queen's ancestry in question fades into obscurity long ago, and it
    seems likely to me that every Ruthenian dirt farmer living in 1000 who
    has descendants today is quite likely to be included. Unless they were
    growing crops of super-nutritional value, I doubt that very many of them
    would be represented into modern times anyway.

    She also descends from an untold number of rapists, of course, whose
    moral standards have perhaps not been entirely lost in her own posterity.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Ian Goddard@21:1/5 to Peter Stewart on Tue Nov 16 10:51:04 2021
    On 15/11/2021 22:25, Peter Stewart wrote:
    The queen has some exotic (by royal standards) eastern-European ancestry through the morganatic antecedents of her paternal grandmother Ma(r)y of Teck. She also has a lot of genetic input from peasant and tradesman
    stock through her maternal ancestry.

    And royal standards are quite exotic compared to most of the British population.

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  • From Denis Beauregard@21:1/5 to lancaster.boon@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 11:13:10 2021
    On Mon, 15 Nov 2021 14:36:13 -0800 (PST), "lancast...@gmail.com" <lancaster.boon@gmail.com> wrote in soc.genealogy.medieval:

    Yes I agree. It takes time, but this can help for example confirm or deny paper trails which are on the edge so to speak. I don't think I've ever seen anything which makes me believe this can get back to common ancestors earlier than about 1750 though?

    From an analysis of many early New France descendants with Y or MT
    DNA, it was found that with a good paper trail, there is about 1/200
    legal father who is not the biological father. But there is also about
    1/100 birth out of wedlock. A analysis of Netherland NPE found that
    in upper classes, the rate of NPE was lower than in lower classes
    but I have not analyzed the basis for this paper and I don't know
    if the old Netherland records are nearly complete or not.

    So because of endogamy, there is a point where DNA can't prove
    a relationship because you can't say if the common presumed ancestor
    on paper is an ancestor from DNA.

    But if we are to talk about isolated area as a place where to find
    someone with living descendants not related to other people of the
    nearby area, then I would say that inbreading is making them less
    healthy in a long run so they wouldn't survive without outbreading.


    Denis

    --
    Denis Beauregard - généalogiste émérite (FQSG)
    Les Français d'Amérique du Nord - http://www.francogene.com/gfan/gfan/998/ French in North America before 1722 - http://www.francogene.com/gfna/gfna/998/ Sur cédérom/DVD/USB à 1790 - On CD-ROM/DVD/USB to 1790

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Will Johnson@21:1/5 to lancast...@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 07:45:25 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 2:36:15 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    Yes I agree. It takes time, but this can help for example confirm or deny paper trails which are on the edge so to speak. I don't think I've ever seen anything which makes me believe this can get back to common ancestors earlier than about 1750 though?

    Yes you can in a line. No you probably cannot in all lines.
    The problem is not the DNA.
    The problem is that there are so few people who have done complete and good research.
    The DNA can tell you that you match John Smith, it does not necessarily tell you why.
    For that you need one, two, five hundred, confirmed matches, on specific lines. You can then speculate, could John Smith's ancestor Bryan Jones, be the brother of my ancestor Mary Jones?

    From my own work, there definitely appear to be "chunks" of DNA, up to 60 cms that can descend *at least* five generations intact. I don't think, we've really plowed the depths of how we can use it.

    However the vastly important point, is not just to try this with your own DNA, but to be the admin of a dozen, or five dozen, DNA kits of your known relatives.

    Without that, it's not going to be as fruitful as you wish.

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  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 16 07:34:56 2021
    of her paternal grandmother Ma(r)y of Teck. She also has a lot of
    genetic input from peasant and tradesman stock through her maternal
    ancestry. Her aunt-by-marriage Marina of Greece didn't sneer at her low breeding out of thin air.

    Peter Stewart

    Oh well, Marina was just snobbish in addition to being poor and probably jealous that the best jewelry of her grandmother, Grandduchess Vladimir, had gone to Queen Mary and the Queen Mother.

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  • From Denis Beauregard@21:1/5 to wjhonson.2014@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 11:52:57 2021
    On Tue, 16 Nov 2021 07:45:25 -0800 (PST), Will Johnson <wjhonson.2014@gmail.com> wrote in soc.genealogy.medieval:

    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 2:36:15 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    Yes I agree. It takes time, but this can help for example confirm or deny paper trails which are on the edge so to speak. I don't think I've ever seen anything which makes me believe this can get back to common ancestors earlier than about 1750 though?

    Yes you can in a line. No you probably cannot in all lines.
    The problem is not the DNA.
    The problem is that there are so few people who have done complete and good research.
    The DNA can tell you that you match John Smith, it does not necessarily tell you why.
    For that you need one, two, five hundred, confirmed matches, on specific lines.
    You can then speculate, could John Smith's ancestor Bryan Jones, be the brother of my ancestor Mary Jones?

    From my own work, there definitely appear to be "chunks" of DNA, up to 60 cms that can descend *at least* five generations intact. I don't think, we've really plowed the depths of how we can use it.

    However the vastly important point, is not just to try this with your own DNA, but to be the admin of a dozen, or five dozen, DNA kits of your known relatives.

    FTDNA has projects and many are regional. So being an admin
    of a regional project gives an access to 1000s of DNA results
    to verify this kind of theory. The problem is to document yourself
    all the relevant lineages.

    If I check my own results, I have 187 pages of cousins. In my main
    project (over 11,000 kits including 4848 Family Finders), this
    drops to 14 pages only, so about 7% of my matches are in my main
    project.

    And if I consider the matches with a tree online or not, then
    I get 1734 public trees, 38 private trees and 2888 empty trees.
    Public trees may have only the name of the testee, so that would
    be about 1/5 with a tree I can access or complete. All this to say
    that it is probably easier to document people you know and test
    them, but you can also find a lot by managing a large project.
    In either case, proving all lines for 3 or 4 generations is a
    big task but there are people working on that. And depending on
    the area where your ancestors were living, you can document the
    lines yourself.

    Without that, it's not going to be as fruitful as you wish.

    That said, reaching the medieval time is still possible but not
    with autosomal tests. The difficulty is to get documented lines
    for either fathers or mothers lines. Mothers lines can be mtDNA
    tested but there is no timeline information (the mtDNA is too
    small for that purpose) and anyway, before the 1600s, most
    documentation would be from noble data and in many cases, the
    in-laws are unknown so you can't follow the mtDNA trail.

    yDNA can be timelined, using shared SNPs. This can also be
    linked to a surname project at FTDNA (or you can use NGS
    from other labs and yfull to integrate the results while
    my opinion is that the Big Y from FTDNA are easier to manage).
    Linked to nobility records and number of shared SNPs, you can
    estimate where is the common ancestor and if this is coherent
    with the paper trail, then you may confirm 2 lines before
    the 1500s. Having 2 Big Y results for gateway ancestors is
    now somehow common. Having 2 (or more) for generations before
    is limited to a few lucky families but nonetheless possible too.


    Denis

    --
    Denis Beauregard - généalogiste émérite (FQSG)
    Les Français d'Amérique du Nord - http://www.francogene.com/gfan/gfan/998/ French in North America before 1722 - http://www.francogene.com/gfna/gfna/998/ Sur cédérom/DVD/USB à 1790 - On CD-ROM/DVD/USB to 1790

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  • From Will Johnson@21:1/5 to Denis Beauregard on Tue Nov 16 08:49:34 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 8:13:11 AM UTC-8, Denis Beauregard wrote:

    So because of endogamy, there is a point where DNA can't prove
    a relationship because you can't say if the common presumed ancestor
    on paper is an ancestor from DNA.



    Denis

    --

    You are correct that endogamy is a problem.
    There are methods to get around this however.

    Any match pair who share multiple lines, can be found to *in addition* have other matches who do not share those multiple lines, but only a single line. You have to thread those single lines, assigning the segments to the ancestral couples, and then use
    those assignments to tweeze apart the endogamous lines.

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  • From Denis Beauregard@21:1/5 to wjhonson.2014@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 12:04:27 2021
    On Tue, 16 Nov 2021 08:49:34 -0800 (PST), Will Johnson <wjhonson.2014@gmail.com> wrote in soc.genealogy.medieval:

    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 8:13:11 AM UTC-8, Denis Beauregard wrote:

    So because of endogamy, there is a point where DNA can't prove
    a relationship because you can't say if the common presumed ancestor
    on paper is an ancestor from DNA.



    Denis

    --

    You are correct that endogamy is a problem.
    There are methods to get around this however.

    Any match pair who share multiple lines, can be found to *in addition* have other matches who do not share those multiple lines, but only a single line. You have to thread those single lines, assigning the segments to the ancestral couples, and then
    use those assignments to tweeze apart the endogamous lines.

    For curiosity, did you try yourself to verify your closer
    relationship with DNA ?

    In my own case, I verified some close relationships (like
    cousins or uncles) but failed to confirm relationships
    with unknown matches (too many possible paths).


    Denis

    --
    Denis Beauregard - généalogiste émérite (FQSG)
    Les Français d'Amérique du Nord - http://www.francogene.com/gfan/gfan/998/ French in North America before 1722 - http://www.francogene.com/gfna/gfna/998/ Sur cédérom/DVD/USB à 1790 - On CD-ROM/DVD/USB to 1790

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Will Johnson@21:1/5 to Denis Beauregard on Tue Nov 16 09:24:08 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 9:04:25 AM UTC-8, Denis Beauregard wrote:
    On Tue, 16 Nov 2021 08:49:34 -0800 (PST), Will Johnson
    <wjhons...@gmail.com> wrote in soc.genealogy.medieval:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 8:13:11 AM UTC-8, Denis Beauregard wrote: >>
    So because of endogamy, there is a point where DNA can't prove
    a relationship because you can't say if the common presumed ancestor
    on paper is an ancestor from DNA.



    Denis

    --

    You are correct that endogamy is a problem.
    There are methods to get around this however.

    Any match pair who share multiple lines, can be found to *in addition* have other matches who do not share those multiple lines, but only a single line. You have to thread those single lines, assigning the segments to the ancestral couples, and then
    use those assignments to tweeze apart the endogamous lines.
    For curiosity, did you try yourself to verify your closer
    relationship with DNA ?

    In my own case, I verified some close relationships (like
    cousins or uncles) but failed to confirm relationships
    with unknown matches (too many possible paths).
    Denis

    --
    Denis Beauregard - généalogiste émérite (FQSG)
    Les Français d'Amérique du Nord - http://www.francogene.com/gfan/gfan/998/ French in North America before 1722 - http://www.francogene.com/gfna/gfna/998/
    Sur cédérom/DVD/USB à 1790 - On CD-ROM/DVD/USB to 1790

    Yes I am Y-DNA, mtDNA and Autosomally DNA tested
    I also have paid to test about a dozen of my relatives, and about three dozen more tested without me paying for it.

    I admin about thirty to forty DNA tests of all those.

    I do have matches that are known to be endogamous to me, that is, we share more than one ancestral couple.
    I've also helped some of my cousins realize they have an NPE in their trees, or that they have the wrong parents in a few places.

    I still have mysteries and brickwalls, just as everyone does
    It's a work in progress, but the work is progressing

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to taf on Tue Nov 16 13:14:08 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:48:03 AM UTC+1, taf wrote:
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 2:25:22 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 16-Nov-21 2:39 AM, taf wrote:
    Political, religious and social divisions would also have had significant impact on immigration into and out of the gene pool that is not so readily hand-waved away as some would like - do we really think that Queen Elizabeth descends from every
    single Ruthenian dirt farmer, Algeciras imam and Venice Jewish cobler living in 1000 who has descendants? I certainly don't.
    I don't know about the imam and the cobbler, but the dirt farmer is
    quite probably her ancestor.
    I wouldn't question that she descends from many Ruthenian dirt-farmers, but I doubt she descends from every Ruthenian dirt farmer just because . . . statistics, as is the argument that commenced this thread.

    taf

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from all of them? This would imply there was a very large population, divided
    into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.

    I am not sure if you think I was one of the people giving an "argument", but if you do then this is a misunderstanding. All these types of discussions are speculations - at best exploring the impact of different assumptions. But the further back we go,
    the smaller the human population gets, and the more amazingly big the number of people in our family tree. The isolation of an in-bred group has to be absolutely perfect to stop these numbers from eventually collapsing the sets of all our ancestors.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Denis Beauregard@21:1/5 to joecook@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 17:09:46 2021
    On Tue, 16 Nov 2021 13:22:00 -0800 (PST), joseph cook
    <joecook@gmail.com> wrote in soc.genealogy.medieval:

    We can argue about the date, 1200 AD, 1000 AD, 700 AD, etc. but it is impossible to even conceive of a model based on reality that does not prove the point that at a recent time in the past, everyone in europe is the ancestor of all europeans or none.

    But you can check with the population of a smaller
    country where you can control all the input in older
    years. Some populations are easier to study. For example,
    New France was built from about 10,000 pioneers, roughly
    8,000 men and 2,000 women. That gives us a dataset of
    about 5,000 persons (my estimate being that about half
    have no living descendants) in the 1600s and 15 M today.
    Take any 2 persons living in Quebec today and having
    ancestors in New France, i.e. before 1763, and odds are
    nearly 100% they have some common cousin. But not 100%.
    Different people arrived in what is now Quebec and what
    was then Acadia, so it is possible that someone living
    in NB or NS today has French ancestry before 1763 but
    no common ancestor in QC. So we have a dataset of
    complete genealogies during 400 years which is far
    from the initial statement (all people in X year with
    descendants are the ancestors of all people today).

    If far from true since the 1600s, it is surely not if
    you double or triple that period, i.e. 1200 or 800.
    It is probable that many people living in Russia in
    800 even 400 AD have no descendant in France in 2021.


    Denis

    --
    Denis Beauregard - généalogiste émérite (FQSG)
    Les Français d'Amérique du Nord - http://www.francogene.com/gfan/gfan/998/ French in North America before 1722 - http://www.francogene.com/gfna/gfna/998/ Sur cédérom/DVD/USB à 1790 - On CD-ROM/DVD/USB to 1790

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to taf on Tue Nov 16 13:22:00 2021
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 7:48:03 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 2:25:22 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 16-Nov-21 2:39 AM, taf wrote:
    Political, religious and social divisions would also have had significant impact on immigration into and out of the gene pool that is not so readily hand-waved away as some would like - do we really think that Queen Elizabeth descends from every
    single Ruthenian dirt farmer, Algeciras imam and Venice Jewish cobler living in 1000 who has descendants? I certainly don't.
    I don't know about the imam and the cobbler, but the dirt farmer is
    quite probably her ancestor.
    I wouldn't question that she descends from many Ruthenian dirt-farmers, but I doubt she descends from every Ruthenian dirt farmer just because . . . statistics, as is the argument that commenced this thread.

    For all the reasons to believe something, "just because...math" shows it, is not a bad reason.

    Just because the math is counterintuitive (Heck, the fact that most classrooms of just 24 people have 2 people that share a birthday is rather counterintuitive); doesn't mean it isn't true.

    We can argue about the date, 1200 AD, 1000 AD, 700 AD, etc. but it is impossible to even conceive of a model based on reality that does not prove the point that at a recent time in the past, everyone in europe is the ancestor of all europeans or none.
    And you can't handwave that away just because ... it's counterintuitive.

    --Joe C

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From taf@21:1/5 to lancast...@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 14:10:06 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:14:10 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without
    going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from
    all of them?

    Yes.

    This would imply there was a very large population, divided into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.

    An entire ethnic group generally is a large population, and when you factor in endogamy, I think it is not only probable, but likely that there are lines of descent that, just by chance, do not intersect with every other line from every other individual
    at that time, such that being descended from one means being descended from everyone.

    I am not sure if you think I was one of the people giving an "argument", but if you do then this is a misunderstanding.

    I explixitly said, "the argument that commenced this thread." You did not commence this thread.

    All these types of discussions are speculations - at best exploring the impact of different assumptions.

    Yes, indeed. That is really my point - that with a different set of assumptions, one can arrive at a different answer, and hence the statistics being applied to arrive at The Truth are only valid for the specific assumptions made.

    But the further back we go, the smaller the human population gets, and the more amazingly big the number of people in our family tree.

    And likewise the more isolated and inbred the populations get, such that if you miss a connection, there is no guarantee you are going to add it by going just a little bit farther back.

    The isolation of an in-bred group has to be absolutely perfect to stop these numbers from eventually collapsing the sets of all our ancestors.

    Yes, that is true, eventually, but we are not talking about eventually, we are talking about a specific date, and with a specific date, there is the possibility that through the quirks of contingency in individual families and populations, with regard to
    family size and endogamy and just general chance, it is possible for example that a person living in 1000 had such a small number of descendants living in 1200 that they are effectively starting exmansion 200 years after the 'average' bloodline, and
    hence their expanding 'pyramid' of descent might fail to become broad enough, soon enough, to have their bloodline present in one of the infrequent 'breakout' events that rapidly take the bloodlines to distant lands, rather than having to work their way
    across the continent one village at a time.

    You complain that I am demanding 'absolutely perfect' endogamy or everyone is descended from everyone, but you are assuming 'absolutely perfect' distribution of bloodlines across a population, fast enough that every single one of them doesn't miss out on
    riding along with one of the atypical events that provides large-scale spread of the bloodlines into novel populations. Yes, given enough time, it will spread throughout, but I think 'enough time' differs a lot depending on the individual populations a
    bloodline is moving through, and that the sum total of these contingencies may end up with at least some lines missing the boat.

    taf

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From taf@21:1/5 to joe...@gmail.com on Tue Nov 16 14:48:40 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:22:01 PM UTC-8, joe...@gmail.com wrote:
    On Monday, November 15, 2021 at 7:48:03 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    I wouldn't question that she descends from many Ruthenian dirt-farmers, but I doubt she descends from every Ruthenian dirt farmer just because . . . statistics, as is the argument that commenced this thread.
    For all the reasons to believe something, "just because...math" shows it, is not a bad reason.

    No, I am not letting you get away with that. 'Just because . . . math' IS a bad reason if the math is based on massively oversimplified repesentations of something this extraordinarily complex.

    Just because the math is counterintuitive (Heck, the fact that most classrooms of just 24 people
    have 2 people that share a birthday is rather counterintuitive); doesn't mean it isn't true.

    No, but just because someone used math doesn't make their conclusions true.

    We can argue about the date, 1200 AD, 1000 AD, 700 AD, etc. but it is impossible to even conceive
    of a model based on reality that does not prove the point that at a recent time in the past, everyone
    in europe is the ancestor of all europeans or none.

    Trying to claim that something is impossible to conceive of isn't as strong an argument as it seems - perhaps it just reflects limited thinking. I can easily envision a scenario whereby someone would have been in Europe in 700, and have living
    descendants in Europe now, but not have their bloodline universally represented, and it is based on reality (with a not-insignificant degree of improbability, but not impossibility).

    And you can't handwave that away just because ... it's counterintuitive.

    That is not what I am doing. I just am not accepting the oversimplifications that underlie your assumptions.

    taf

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to taf on Wed Nov 17 10:06:34 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 9:10 AM, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:14:10 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without
    going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from
    all of them?

    Yes.

    This would imply there was a very large population, divided into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.

    An entire ethnic group generally is a large population, and when you factor in endogamy, I think it is not only probable, but likely that there are lines of descent that, just by chance, do not intersect with every other line from every other
    individual at that time, such that being descended from one means being descended from everyone.


    Do you think that these haphazardly non-intersecting lineages would have
    lasted within the same demographic in the same region over half a
    millennium, so that anyone descended from a Ruthenian dirt farmer living
    ca 1500 would perhaps not be descended from all of his counterparts
    living in 1000?

    Peter Stewart

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to taf on Tue Nov 16 14:48:52 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 5:10:08 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:14:10 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without
    going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from
    all of them?
    Yes.
    This would imply there was a very large population, divided into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.
    An entire ethnic group generally is a large population, and when you factor in endogamy, I think it is not only probable, but likely that there are lines of descent that, just by chance, do not intersect with every other line from every other
    individual at that time, such that being descended from one means being descended from everyone.
    I am not sure if you think I was one of the people giving an "argument", but if you do then this is a misunderstanding.
    I explixitly said, "the argument that commenced this thread." You did not commence this thread.
    All these types of discussions are speculations - at best exploring the impact of different assumptions.
    Yes, indeed. That is really my point - that with a different set of assumptions, one can arrive at a different answer, and hence the statistics being applied to arrive at The Truth are only valid for the specific assumptions made.
    But the further back we go, the smaller the human population gets, and the more amazingly big the number of people in our family tree.
    And likewise the more isolated and inbred the populations get, such that if you miss a connection, there is no guarantee you are going to add it by going just a little bit farther back.
    The isolation of an in-bred group has to be absolutely perfect to stop these numbers from eventually collapsing the sets of all our ancestors.
    Yes, that is true, eventually, but we are not talking about eventually, we are talking about a specific date, and with a specific date, there is the possibility that through the quirks of contingency in individual families and populations, with regard
    to family size and endogamy and just general chance, it is possible for example that a person living in 1000 had such a small number of descendants living in 1200 that they are effectively starting exmansion 200 years after the 'average' bloodline, and
    hence their expanding 'pyramid' of descent might fail to become broad enough, soon enough, to have their bloodline present in one of the infrequent 'breakout' events that rapidly take the bloodlines to distant lands, rather than having to work their way
    across the continent one village at a time.

    You complain that I am demanding 'absolutely perfect' endogamy or everyone is descended from everyone, but you are assuming 'absolutely perfect' distribution of bloodlines across a population, fast enough that every single one of them doesn't miss out
    on riding along with one of the atypical events that provides large-scale spread of the bloodlines into novel populations. Yes, given enough time, it will spread throughout, but I think 'enough time' differs a lot depending on the individual populations
    a bloodline is moving through, and that the sum total of these contingencies may end up with at least some lines missing the boat.

    taf

    I have to agree with Taf on this one.

    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied, it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from
    peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining). So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living descendants (baring NPEs). And of course there would be quite considerable numbers of people alive in
    1000, ALL of whose descendants died out after even shorter periods of time (after 150 years, 100 years, 70 years, 50 years).

    On the other hand, imagine a village couple in the year 1300 who were related many different ways such that their children would be extremely inbred. Suppose despite this that they have a huge family, which is definitely possible, and their children,
    grandchildren, and great-grandchildren are also hugely prolific. Enormous numbers of people might be descended from them, and yet their own "limited" / repeated number of descents from the year 1000 actually does the opposite of linking their
    descendants to "everyone alive in 1000."

    So yes, "contingency" (good word) almost certainly negates the original premise given by the OP.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From taf@21:1/5 to ravinma...@yahoo.com on Tue Nov 16 15:08:34 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).

    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another couple
    of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few hundred
    years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete saturation.

    taf

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Johnny Brananas on Wed Nov 17 10:18:02 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 2:34 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:

    of her paternal grandmother Ma(r)y of Teck. She also has a lot of
    genetic input from peasant and tradesman stock through her maternal
    ancestry. Her aunt-by-marriage Marina of Greece didn't sneer at her low
    breeding out of thin air.

    Peter Stewart

    Oh well, Marina was just snobbish in addition to being poor and probably jealous that the best jewelry of her grandmother, Grandduchess Vladimir, had gone to Queen Mary and the Queen Mother.


    I thought it went without saying that Marina was snobbish, at least in
    this very specific regard. She was no doubt trained in royal snootiness
    from the cradle, but still she didn't need to invent the distinction in
    elitist pride between her own seize quartiers and Elizabeth II's.

    The means by which queen Mary came to possess Romanov jewels and the
    family background to their being for sale in the first place are still unforgiven in sections of European royalty. Jealousy over money or gems
    hardly enters into this old rancour. Equivalent moral offenses that
    don't involve treachery and kleptomania are regularly overlooked in
    those circles.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Johnny Brananas on Wed Nov 17 10:24:03 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."


    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families
    that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It
    takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her
    father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to taf on Tue Nov 16 15:19:38 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From taf@21:1/5 to pss...@optusnet.com.au on Tue Nov 16 15:24:52 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 3:06:39 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 9:10 AM, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:14:10 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without
    going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from
    all of them?

    Yes.

    This would imply there was a very large population, divided into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.

    An entire ethnic group generally is a large population, and when you factor in endogamy, I think it is not only probable, but likely that there are lines of descent that, just by chance, do not intersect with every other line from every other
    individual at that time, such that being descended from one means being descended from everyone.

    Do you think that these haphazardly non-intersecting lineages would have lasted within the same demographic in the same region over half a millennium, so that anyone descended from a Ruthenian dirt farmer living
    ca 1500 would perhaps not be descended from all of his counterparts
    living in 1000?

    I think it is _possible_. In a couple of instances, my person of interest in 1850 had their entire ancestry from the same European village in 1600, but nonetheless did not descend from all of the village's 1600-era couples with descendants (not even all
    of them of the same religion). As such, I can easily envision a bloodline not making it to everyone in an entire region in twice that time. Under similar spread conditions, even if the bloodline got to every village in the region within 250 years, the
    bloodline still would not have permeated every villager by the 500 year-point.

    taf

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Ian Goddard on Wed Nov 17 10:40:46 2021
    On 16-Nov-21 9:51 PM, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 15/11/2021 22:25, Peter Stewart wrote:
    The queen has some exotic (by royal standards) eastern-European
    ancestry through the morganatic antecedents of her paternal
    grandmother Ma(r)y of Teck. She also has a lot of genetic input from
    peasant and tradesman stock through her maternal ancestry.

    And royal standards are quite exotic compared to most of the British population.

    Yes, but in this case I meant exotic to the royal family only by
    occupation rather than geographically or by social background - and
    really many of the British public today who soak up tabloid and Twitter
    mockery of the Middleton and Markle families are far more snobbish about
    class than the Windsors.

    Some of the British population still regard drinking coffee as exotic,
    though no doubt many fewer than when I last lived among them (35 years ago).

    When the late queen mother married the duke of York in the early-1920s,
    within five years from the end of the Great War, English newsreels at
    first affectedly pronounced her "exotic" surname Bowes-Lyon (spoken as Bose-Lion) as "Boughs-Leon". Despite the Bowes being actually English
    and the Lyon being an obvious orthographic variant, they wanted to make
    her sound more exotic when marrying into a dynasty that was then
    regarded as Continental (not to say Hun, as many did).

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to taf on Wed Nov 17 10:43:18 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 10:24 AM, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 3:06:39 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 9:10 AM, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:14:10 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without
    going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from
    all of them?

    Yes.

    This would imply there was a very large population, divided into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.

    An entire ethnic group generally is a large population, and when you factor in endogamy, I think it is not only probable, but likely that there are lines of descent that, just by chance, do not intersect with every other line from every other
    individual at that time, such that being descended from one means being descended from everyone.

    Do you think that these haphazardly non-intersecting lineages would have
    lasted within the same demographic in the same region over half a
    millennium, so that anyone descended from a Ruthenian dirt farmer living
    ca 1500 would perhaps not be descended from all of his counterparts
    living in 1000?

    I think it is _possible_. In a couple of instances, my person of interest in 1850 had their entire ancestry from the same European village in 1600, but nonetheless did not descend from all of the village's 1600-era couples with descendants (not even
    all of them of the same religion). As such, I can easily envision a bloodline not making it to everyone in an entire region in twice that time. Under similar spread conditions, even if the bloodline got to every village in the region within 250 years,
    the bloodline still would not have permeated every villager by the 500 year-point.

    Managing to trace every single ancestor in 1600 of someone living in
    1850 is a fairly rare achievement - have you published this rather
    phenomenal research outcome?

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to pss...@optusnet.com.au on Tue Nov 16 15:35:41 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families
    that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It
    takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her
    father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Johnny Brananas on Wed Nov 17 10:46:41 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 10:35 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families
    that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It
    takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her
    father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.


    But the daughter would not need to be prolific - just one son surviving
    to adulthood who inherited prepotency from his agnatic ancestry is
    enough to open a potentially vast descendancy from her own "straggling"
    father.

    Peter Stewart

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to pss...@optusnet.com.au on Tue Nov 16 15:55:03 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:46:42 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:35 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families
    that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It
    takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her
    father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.

    But the daughter would not need to be prolific - just one son surviving
    to adulthood who inherited prepotency from his agnatic ancestry is
    enough to open a potentially vast descendancy from her own "straggling" father.

    Peter Stewart

    In that case, she would be a "prolific grandmother." But earlier is better if she wants to be the "grandmother of all living."

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Johnny Brananas on Wed Nov 17 11:04:00 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 10:55 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:46:42 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:35 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families
    that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It
    takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her
    father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.

    But the daughter would not need to be prolific - just one son surviving
    to adulthood who inherited prepotency from his agnatic ancestry is
    enough to open a potentially vast descendancy from her own "straggling"
    father.

    Peter Stewart

    In that case, she would be a "prolific grandmother." But earlier is better if she wants to be the "grandmother of all living."


    Earlier than 1000 in order to be ancestor of all living descendants in
    2021? I doubt there is a rigorous statistical model to substantiate this.

    Peter Stewart

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to pss...@optusnet.com.au on Tue Nov 16 16:12:26 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 7:04:01 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:55 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:46:42 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:35 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking
    another couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take
    another few hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of
    incomplete saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families >>>> that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It >>>> takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her >>>> father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.

    But the daughter would not need to be prolific - just one son surviving >> to adulthood who inherited prepotency from his agnatic ancestry is
    enough to open a potentially vast descendancy from her own "straggling" >> father.

    Peter Stewart

    In that case, she would be a "prolific grandmother." But earlier is better if she wants to be the "grandmother of all living."

    Earlier than 1000 in order to be ancestor of all living descendants in
    2021? I doubt there is a rigorous statistical model to substantiate this.

    Peter Stewart

    Of course she is an "ancestor of all [her] living descendants" by definition ... but of all Europeans alive in 2021?

    And we spoke of her coming at the end of a period of straggling or stagnant growth (? 100/ 200/ 300 years), so it wouldn't start in year 1000.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to taf on Tue Nov 16 16:31:12 2021
    <taf said>
    I think it is _possible_. In a couple of instances, my person of interest in 1850 had their entire ancestry from the same European village in 1600, but nonetheless did not descend from all of the village's 1600-era couples with descendants (not even
    all of them of the same religion). As such, I can easily envision a bloodline not making it to everyone in an entire region in twice that time. Under similar spread conditions, even if the bloodline got to every village in the region within 250 years,
    the bloodline still would not have permeated every villager by the 500 year-point.
    Managing to trace every single ancestor in 1600 of someone living in
    1850 is a fairly rare achievement - have you published this rather phenomenal research outcome?

    The more phenomenal piece of this to me is that a "village" could support so many folks marrying without absurd endogamy. Even with the most generous assumptions, a person born in 1850 with long generations, looking at just those born in the one
    generation around 1600 would be 256 people all from the same village. This is a very unusual situation indeed. Even the most remote places in Europe tended to have a group of villages who at least traded daughters and sons back and forth.

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King or
    Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    --Joe C

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Ian Goddard@21:1/5 to Peter Stewart on Wed Nov 17 00:28:37 2021
    On 16/11/2021 23:40, Peter Stewart wrote:
    On 16-Nov-21 9:51 PM, Ian Goddard wrote:
    On 15/11/2021 22:25, Peter Stewart wrote:
    The queen has some exotic (by royal standards) eastern-European
    ancestry through the morganatic antecedents of her paternal
    grandmother Ma(r)y of Teck. She also has a lot of genetic input from
    peasant and tradesman stock through her maternal ancestry.

    And royal standards are quite exotic compared to most of the British
    population.

    Yes, but in this case I meant exotic to the royal family only by
    occupation rather than geographically or by social background - and
    really many of the British public today who soak up tabloid and Twitter mockery of the Middleton and Markle families are far more snobbish about class than the Windsors.

    Some of the British population still regard drinking coffee as exotic,
    though no doubt many fewer than when I last lived among them (35 years
    ago).

    When the late queen mother married the duke of York in the early-1920s, within five years from the end of the Great War, English newsreels at
    first affectedly pronounced her "exotic" surname Bowes-Lyon (spoken as Bose-Lion) as "Boughs-Leon". Despite the Bowes being actually English
    and the Lyon being an obvious orthographic variant, they wanted to make
    her sound more exotic when marrying into a  dynasty that was then
    regarded as Continental (not to say Hun, as many did).

    I don't disagree, I was just getting back to the original topic. The
    royal family is far more geographically exotic than most of us. Taf may exclude some ?most dirt farmers from royal ancestry. The rest of us can exclude more.

    Obviously the newsreel commentators had never visited the Bowes Museum
    in Barnard Castle; probably never made it north of Potters Bar.

    Ian

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to joseph cook on Tue Nov 16 16:36:55 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 7:31:13 PM UTC-5, joseph cook wrote:
    <taf said>
    I think it is _possible_. In a couple of instances, my person of interest in 1850 had their entire ancestry from the same European village in 1600, but nonetheless did not descend from all of the village's 1600-era couples with descendants (not
    even all of them of the same religion). As such, I can easily envision a bloodline not making it to everyone in an entire region in twice that time. Under similar spread conditions, even if the bloodline got to every village in the region within 250
    years, the bloodline still would not have permeated every villager by the 500 year-point.
    Managing to trace every single ancestor in 1600 of someone living in
    1850 is a fairly rare achievement - have you published this rather phenomenal research outcome?
    The more phenomenal piece of this to me is that a "village" could support so many folks marrying without absurd endogamy. Even with the most generous assumptions, a person born in 1850 with long generations, looking at just those born in the one
    generation around 1600 would be 256 people all from the same village. This is a very unusual situation indeed. Even the most remote places in Europe tended to have a group of villages who at least traded daughters and sons back and forth.

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King or
    Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    I see in a quick look that it appears genealogics has 1022/1024 for the next generation, with both "unidentified" spots belonging to the same person, Lucia, wife of one Hektor, whose parents and family are not listed:

    https://genealogics.org/getperson.php?personID=I00122110&tree=LEO

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Johnny Brananas@21:1/5 to Johnny Brananas on Tue Nov 16 16:31:34 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:55:05 PM UTC-5, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:46:42 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:35 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking
    another couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take
    another few hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of
    incomplete saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families >> that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It >> takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her
    father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.

    But the daughter would not need to be prolific - just one son surviving
    to adulthood who inherited prepotency from his agnatic ancestry is
    enough to open a potentially vast descendancy from her own "straggling" father.

    Peter Stewart
    In that case, she would be a "prolific grandmother." But earlier is better if she wants to be the "grandmother of all living."

    What year do we think is the last year we can say the descendants of a specific individual living in 1000 died out for good?

    For instance, it's probable that in 1001 a considerable number of families descended from someone living the previous year died out totally and finally (small family killed by plague).
    In the year 1050, some of those alive 50 years earlier would have lost a last descendant.

    In the year 1150, some percentage of the 1000-ers would have a final family member die.

    Do we think this happened, say, last year (2020) as well?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 16 16:46:16 2021
    What year do we think is the last year we can say the descendants of a specific individual living in 1000 died out for good?

    For instance, it's probable that in 1001 a considerable number of families descended from someone living the previous year died out totally and finally (small family killed by plague).
    In the year 1050, some of those alive 50 years earlier would have lost a last descendant.

    In the year 1150, some percentage of the 1000-ers would have a final family member die.

    Do we think this happened, say, last year (2020) as well?

    Well, we believe that Thomas Lincoln, father of President Abraham was born in 1778 and his last known descendant died in 1985, so this is one extreme notable example.

    I have a man born 1819 whose number of descendants in each generation is: 1(him), 1 (only child), 1 (only child), 1 (only child), 2, 2, 5. So, it looked dim there for a bit, but the line may yet survive!

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Johnny Brananas on Wed Nov 17 12:20:11 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 11:31 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:55:05 PM UTC-5, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:46:42 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:35 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:24:08 PM UTC-5, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 10:19 AM, Johnny Brananas wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 6:08:36 PM UTC-5, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 2:48:54 PM UTC-8, ravinma...@yahoo.com wrote:
    The statement about "everyone who left descendants" requires some unpacking. As Todd implied,
    it's possible to leave a straggling line of descendants for, say, two or three hundred years, before
    the "last of the line" dies (we know this happens from peerages that go extinct -- no heirs remaining).
    So those would be people "living in 1000 who left descendants," but who would have no current living
    descendants (baring NPEs).
    Just to be clear, this isn't exactly what I was saying. The original model, as I understood it, implied having descendants to the present time. I was more thinking of a line that straggled along for two or three hundred years, then taking another
    couple of hundred years for their bloodline to permeate their immediate area, then another few hundred years for their country or region - and at the other end after first arriving in a village at some distant point in Europe it would take another few
    hundred years to saturate the bloodlines of that village. I could easily see this taking too long to all happen within 1000 years, and I don't see expanding the start time back another 300 years necessarily eliminates the possibility of incomplete
    saturation.

    taf

    Oh, I guess I wasn't following that bit.

    But do you agree with my other example, that certain families may be far more prolific than others and that if their own antecedents were highly repetitive, this cuts down on the likelihood of
    "descent from everyone."

    I agree with straggling descendants in a number of successive generations being a big problem for successful spread of the genes "to everyone in the world."

    Are you thinking of straggling descents in the male line, of families >>>>> that somehow have no fertile daughters born over centuries on end? It >>>>> takes only one such daughter to spread the "straggling" genes of her >>>>> father into a more prepotent dirt farmer's offfspring.

    Peter Stewart

    Just generally straggling (males _and_ females). Few births ... or many deaths.

    It would depend on the timing of the daughter who was prolific. I think Todd's point is that those who "straggle" too long in the period 1000-1300 don't end up being able to spread everywhere by 2021.

    But the daughter would not need to be prolific - just one son surviving
    to adulthood who inherited prepotency from his agnatic ancestry is
    enough to open a potentially vast descendancy from her own "straggling"
    father.

    Peter Stewart
    In that case, she would be a "prolific grandmother." But earlier is better if she wants to be the "grandmother of all living."

    What year do we think is the last year we can say the descendants of a specific individual living in 1000 died out for good?

    For instance, it's probable that in 1001 a considerable number of families descended from someone living the previous year died out totally and finally (small family killed by plague).
    In the year 1050, some of those alive 50 years earlier would have lost a last descendant.

    In the year 1150, some percentage of the 1000-ers would have a final family member die.

    Do we think this happened, say, last year (2020) as well?


    The circumstance posited in this thread is that every Ruthenian
    dirt-farmer living in 1000 _who has modern descendants_ is not
    necessarily an ancestor of queen Elizabeth II. Someone whose descendants
    died out by 1150 is logically excluded from comments posted since Todd suggested this. Of course a percentage of Ruthenians living in 1000 have
    no modern descendants, whatever they did in life, but that is beside the
    point.

    Peter Stewart

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to Peter Stewart on Wed Nov 17 12:59:44 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 12:48 PM, Peter Stewart wrote:
    On 17-Nov-21 11:31 AM, joseph cook wrote:
    <taf said>
    I think it is _possible_. In a couple of instances, my person of
    interest in 1850 had their entire ancestry from the same European
    village in 1600, but nonetheless did not descend from all of the
    village's 1600-era couples with descendants (not even all of them of
    the same religion). As such, I can easily envision a bloodline not
    making it to everyone in an entire region in twice that time. Under
    similar spread conditions, even if the bloodline got to every
    village in the region within 250 years, the bloodline still would
    not have permeated every villager by the 500 year-point.
    Managing to trace every single ancestor in 1600 of someone living in
    1850 is a fairly rare achievement - have you published this rather
    phenomenal research outcome?

    The more phenomenal piece of this to me is that a "village" could
    support so many folks marrying without absurd endogamy.  Even with the
    most generous assumptions, a person born in 1850 with long
    generations, looking at just those born in the one generation around
    1600 would be 256 people all from the same village.   This is a very
    unusual situation indeed.   Even the most remote places in Europe
    tended to have a group of villages who at least traded daughters and
    sons back and forth.

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of
    his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I
    thought this was quite unusual.  I can't even fathom 512/512 for any
    person anywhere in the world other than a King or Queen.   In Europe
    (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely
    well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors
    in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the
    bias, I think?  Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably
    who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at
    his word;   Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his
    ancestors on genealogics.org

    I think going back 9 generations from individual 1 may be reasonable for
    250 years, but in my own ancestry the first people living in 1771 are
    found 7 generations back (among 128 different individuals, mostly born
    later) and 8 back most of the known individuals (of potentially 256)
    were living at that time.

    Apologies, my arithmetic is appalling - of the potential 128 individuals
    in generation 7 there are 16 unknown, so I should have written "among
    112 different individuals of potentially 128". The kin beyond my ken
    were from Switzerland, perhaps traceable by someone with more skill and determination than I have, and highly unlikely to overlap at all with
    the rest.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to joseph cook on Wed Nov 17 12:48:51 2021
    On 17-Nov-21 11:31 AM, joseph cook wrote:
    <taf said>
    I think it is _possible_. In a couple of instances, my person of interest in 1850 had their entire ancestry from the same European village in 1600, but nonetheless did not descend from all of the village's 1600-era couples with descendants (not even
    all of them of the same religion). As such, I can easily envision a bloodline not making it to everyone in an entire region in twice that time. Under similar spread conditions, even if the bloodline got to every village in the region within 250 years,
    the bloodline still would not have permeated every villager by the 500 year-point.
    Managing to trace every single ancestor in 1600 of someone living in
    1850 is a fairly rare achievement - have you published this rather
    phenomenal research outcome?

    The more phenomenal piece of this to me is that a "village" could support so many folks marrying without absurd endogamy. Even with the most generous assumptions, a person born in 1850 with long generations, looking at just those born in the one
    generation around 1600 would be 256 people all from the same village. This is a very unusual situation indeed. Even the most remote places in Europe tended to have a group of villages who at least traded daughters and sons back and forth.

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King or
    Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    I think going back 9 generations from individual 1 may be reasonable for
    250 years, but in my own ancestry the first people living in 1771 are
    found 7 generations back (among 128 different individuals, mostly born
    later) and 8 back most of the known individuals (of potentially 256)
    were living at that time.

    I wasn't questioning the basis for Todd's statement, just admiring it.
    As far as I can recall from Gerald Paget's book, the same could not be
    done for the current prince of Wales for 250 years ago - though I don't
    have the energy to check this.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From JBrand@21:1/5 to joe...@gmail.com on Wed Nov 17 05:21:20 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 7:46:18 PM UTC-5, joe...@gmail.com wrote:
    What year do we think is the last year we can say the descendants of a specific individual living in 1000 died out for good?

    For instance, it's probable that in 1001 a considerable number of families descended from someone living the previous year died out totally and finally (small family killed by plague).
    In the year 1050, some of those alive 50 years earlier would have lost a last descendant.

    In the year 1150, some percentage of the 1000-ers would have a final family member die.

    Do we think this happened, say, last year (2020) as well?
    Well, we believe that Thomas Lincoln, father of President Abraham was born in 1778 and his last known descendant died in 1985, so this is one extreme notable example.

    I have a man born 1819 whose number of descendants in each generation is: 1(him), 1 (only child), 1 (only child), 1 (only child), 2, 2, 5. So, it looked dim there for a bit, but the line may yet survive!

    Right, good examples of meager lines that straggle/ struggle on for at least two hundred years.

    One wouldn't think that either Thomas Lincoln or the 1819 man were themselves last descendant of one of the 1000-ers. Could technically be true, but not too likely.

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  • From JBrand@21:1/5 to JBrand on Wed Nov 17 06:18:03 2021
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 8:21:21 AM UTC-5, JBrand wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 7:46:18 PM UTC-5, joe...@gmail.com wrote:
    What year do we think is the last year we can say the descendants of a specific individual living in 1000 died out for good?

    For instance, it's probable that in 1001 a considerable number of families descended from someone living the previous year died out totally and finally (small family killed by plague).
    In the year 1050, some of those alive 50 years earlier would have lost a last descendant.

    In the year 1150, some percentage of the 1000-ers would have a final family member die.

    Do we think this happened, say, last year (2020) as well?
    Well, we believe that Thomas Lincoln, father of President Abraham was born in 1778 and his last known descendant died in 1985, so this is one extreme notable example.

    I have a man born 1819 whose number of descendants in each generation is: 1(him), 1 (only child), 1 (only child), 1 (only child), 2, 2, 5. So, it looked dim there for a bit, but the line may yet survive!
    Right, good examples of meager lines that straggle/ struggle on for at least two hundred years.

    One wouldn't think that either Thomas Lincoln or the 1819 man were themselves last descendant of one of the 1000-ers. Could technically be true, but not too likely.

    How did typical looks in various regions of Europe remain in force if all are descendants of all? I mean for instance typical Spanish/ Italian looks (olive complection, dark eyes) versus stereotypical Scottish looks (red hair, blue eyes).

    Wouldn't there be some standard homogenized "European look" for all Europeans if the premise were true?

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  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 17 09:37:08 2021
    One wouldn't think that either Thomas Lincoln or the 1819 man were themselves last descendant of one of the 1000-ers. Could technically be true, but not too likely.
    How did typical looks in various regions of Europe remain in force if all are descendants of all? I mean for instance typical Spanish/ Italian looks (olive complection, dark eyes) versus stereotypical Scottish looks (red hair, blue eyes).

    Wouldn't there be some standard homogenized "European look" for all Europeans if the premise were true?

    No. Only if those ancestors were repeated in equal proportions; which they nowhere nearly are. If you look at all 4,400 Billion people in your ancestor tree alive 1200 years ago, and fill them one each with every single one of the 10 million Europeans
    who lived then who have surviving descendants, you are still left with 4,390 Billion boxes to fill in any lopsided way you choose.
    --Joe C

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  • From JBrand@21:1/5 to joe...@gmail.com on Wed Nov 17 10:22:57 2021
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 12:37:10 PM UTC-5, joe...@gmail.com wrote:
    One wouldn't think that either Thomas Lincoln or the 1819 man were themselves last descendant of one of the 1000-ers. Could technically be true, but not too likely.
    How did typical looks in various regions of Europe remain in force if all are descendants of all? I mean for instance typical Spanish/ Italian looks (olive complection, dark eyes) versus stereotypical Scottish looks (red hair, blue eyes).

    Wouldn't there be some standard homogenized "European look" for all Europeans if the premise were true?
    No. Only if those ancestors were repeated in equal proportions; which they nowhere nearly are. If you look at all 4,400 Billion people in your ancestor tree alive 1200 years ago, and fill them one each with every single one of the 10 million Europeans
    who lived then who have surviving descendants, you are still left with 4,390 Billion boxes to fill in any lopsided way you choose.
    --Joe C

    If the numbers of unduplicated slots available in the last 1200 years are so extreme, why is the pool then confined to Europe? Shouldn't it really be that everyone alive on planet Earth 1200 years ago is my ancestor? Or if not exactly 1200 years, then
    some number a mere step beyond that ... say 1400 or 1500 years.

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  • From John Higgins@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 17 11:33:21 2021
    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King or
    Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    --Joe C

    As to the matter of full slates of ancestors, the genealogist Willhelm Karl, Prinz zu Isenburg (the author of the original version of Europâische Stammtafeln) was able to identify all 1024 of the 1024 ancestors in the 10th generation of his ancestry (
    with a fair number of duplicates, no doubt). I'm not aware of anyone, royal or otherwise, who can match that. His 1925 work, Meine Ahnen, takes his ancestry out to 14 generations. I haven't counted the completeness of generations 11 through 14, but
    looking quickly they're pretty well filled (although probably not complete).

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to joseph cook on Thu Nov 18 08:05:05 2021
    On 18-Nov-21 4:37 AM, joseph cook wrote:

    One wouldn't think that either Thomas Lincoln or the 1819 man were themselves last descendant of one of the 1000-ers. Could technically be true, but not too likely.
    How did typical looks in various regions of Europe remain in force if all are descendants of all? I mean for instance typical Spanish/ Italian looks (olive complection, dark eyes) versus stereotypical Scottish looks (red hair, blue eyes).

    Wouldn't there be some standard homogenized "European look" for all Europeans if the premise were true?

    No. Only if those ancestors were repeated in equal proportions; which they nowhere nearly are. If you look at all 4,400 Billion people in your ancestor tree alive 1200 years ago, and fill them one each with every single one of the 10 million
    Europeans who lived then who have surviving descendants, you are still left with 4,390 Billion boxes to fill in any lopsided way you choose.

    There wouldn't be dog shows if inbreeding resulted in a standardised
    phenotype.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to John Higgins on Thu Nov 18 08:13:38 2021
    On 18-Nov-21 6:33 AM, John Higgins wrote:

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King or
    Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    --Joe C

    As to the matter of full slates of ancestors, the genealogist Willhelm Karl, Prinz zu Isenburg (the author of the original version of Europâische Stammtafeln) was able to identify all 1024 of the 1024 ancestors in the 10th generation of his ancestry (
    with a fair number of duplicates, no doubt). I'm not aware of anyone, royal or otherwise, who can match that.

    Probably not too rare in the very rarefied world of German princes in
    his generation and upper echelon of aristocracy - as an Isenburg, he was
    a result of 'Ebenbürtigkeit' over centuries. Blanks in pedigrees would probably be more frequently encountered at a higher level, where
    politics mattered more than pride, or lower, where caste breeding just
    didn't enter into the choice of marriage partner.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to joseph cook on Wed Nov 17 13:39:20 2021
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 4:38:06 PM UTC-5, joseph cook wrote:
    I would say the rate of completeness is mostly a matter of
    availability of older records and how many people have studied
    completely this population. Quebec has about 10,000 early
    settlers (about half with living descendants) so it is somehow
    easy to document most of them and many databases did it. New
    England has about 1 million of arrivals so not the same kind of
    challenge, more candidates when records are lost and anyway,
    marriage records pre 1875 with no parents.
    Well, to reel this in a little bit; between 1620 and 1640 there were about 20,000 immigrants to New England; and about 10% of those returned to England. After 1640 the rate of immigration to New England dropped to a trickle until the 1800s. And while
    New England records are fantastically complete (compared to anywhere else in early America), they still pale to the completeness of records in most of mainland Europe 1620 onward.

    ---and especially 1648 onward of course

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  • From Denis Beauregard@21:1/5 to jhigginsgen@yahoo.com on Wed Nov 17 16:22:23 2021
    On Wed, 17 Nov 2021 11:33:21 -0800 (PST), John Higgins
    <jhigginsgen@yahoo.com> wrote in soc.genealogy.medieval:


    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King or
    Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    --Joe C

    As to the matter of full slates of ancestors, the genealogist Willhelm Karl, Prinz zu Isenburg (the author of the original version of Europâische Stammtafeln) was able to identify all 1024 of the 1024 ancestors in the 10th generation of his ancestry (
    with a fair number of duplicates, no doubt). I'm not aware of anyone, royal or otherwise, who can match that. His 1925 work, Meine Ahnen, takes his ancestry out to 14 generations. I haven't counted the completeness of generations 11 through 14, but looking quickly they're pretty well filled (although probably not complete).

    Is that some kind of challenge ?

    I verified for my niece (so as to have one more generation).
    My data is numbered by couples but I doubled figures for
    compatibility with others.

    1-255 is complete (couples 1-127)
    256-511 has 123/128 (96%)
    512-1023 has 242/256 (94.5%)
    1024-2047 has 468/511 (91.5%)
    2048-4195 has 882/1023 (86%)

    I would say the rate of completeness is mostly a matter of
    availability of older records and how many people have studied
    completely this population. Quebec has about 10,000 early
    settlers (about half with living descendants) so it is somehow
    easy to document most of them and many databases did it. New
    England has about 1 million of arrivals so not the same kind of
    challenge, more candidates when records are lost and anyway,
    marriage records pre 1875 with no parents.


    Denis

    --
    Denis Beauregard - généalogiste émérite (FQSG)
    Les Français d'Amérique du Nord - http://www.francogene.com/gfan/gfan/998/ French in North America before 1722 - http://www.francogene.com/gfna/gfna/998/ Sur cédérom/DVD/USB à 1790 - On CD-ROM/DVD/USB to 1790

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  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 17 13:38:04 2021
    I would say the rate of completeness is mostly a matter of
    availability of older records and how many people have studied
    completely this population. Quebec has about 10,000 early
    settlers (about half with living descendants) so it is somehow
    easy to document most of them and many databases did it. New
    England has about 1 million of arrivals so not the same kind of
    challenge, more candidates when records are lost and anyway,
    marriage records pre 1875 with no parents.

    Well, to reel this in a little bit; between 1620 and 1640 there were about 20,000 immigrants to New England; and about 10% of those returned to England. After 1640 the rate of immigration to New England dropped to a trickle until the 1800s. And while
    New England records are fantastically complete (compared to anywhere else in early America), they still pale to the completeness of records in most of mainland Europe 1620 onward.
    --Joe C

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  • From JBrand@21:1/5 to JBrand on Wed Nov 17 15:36:28 2021
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 1:22:58 PM UTC-5, JBrand wrote:
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 12:37:10 PM UTC-5, joe...@gmail.com wrote:
    One wouldn't think that either Thomas Lincoln or the 1819 man were themselves last descendant of one of the 1000-ers. Could technically be true, but not too likely.
    How did typical looks in various regions of Europe remain in force if all are descendants of all? I mean for instance typical Spanish/ Italian looks (olive complection, dark eyes) versus stereotypical Scottish looks (red hair, blue eyes).

    Wouldn't there be some standard homogenized "European look" for all Europeans if the premise were true?
    No. Only if those ancestors were repeated in equal proportions; which they nowhere nearly are. If you look at all 4,400 Billion people in your ancestor tree alive 1200 years ago, and fill them one each with every single one of the 10 million
    Europeans who lived then who have surviving descendants, you are still left with 4,390 Billion boxes to fill in any lopsided way you choose.
    --Joe C
    If the numbers of unduplicated slots available in the last 1200 years are so extreme, why is the pool then confined to Europe? Shouldn't it really be that everyone alive on planet Earth 1200 years ago is my ancestor? Or if not exactly 1200 years, then
    some number a mere step beyond that ... say 1400 or 1500 years.

    Once we hit BCE periods, wouldn't the number of slots to be filled so far exceed the number of living humans upon earth that extreme endogamy would be unavoidable?

    Some one was saying that six or seven generations back we may have some ancestors who have contributed nothing to our genetic makeup. Isn't this a way around the harmful effects of extreme endogamy?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From John Higgins@21:1/5 to pss...@optusnet.com.au on Wed Nov 17 15:23:46 2021
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 1:13:46 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 18-Nov-21 6:33 AM, John Higgins wrote:

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King
    or Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    --Joe C

    As to the matter of full slates of ancestors, the genealogist Willhelm Karl, Prinz zu Isenburg (the author of the original version of Europâische Stammtafeln) was able to identify all 1024 of the 1024 ancestors in the 10th generation of his ancestry
    (with a fair number of duplicates, no doubt). I'm not aware of anyone, royal or otherwise, who can match that.
    Probably not too rare in the very rarefied world of German princes in
    his generation and upper echelon of aristocracy - as an Isenburg, he was
    a result of 'Ebenbürtigkeit' over centuries. Blanks in pedigrees would probably be more frequently encountered at a higher level, where
    politics mattered more than pride, or lower, where caste breeding just didn't enter into the choice of marriage partner.

    Peter Stewart
    There may well be other cases besides the Isenburgs of such a complete ancestor list, but as I said I'm not aware of any - and I don't think either of us is going to go looking for one!

    In my experience of tracing ancestries, it's more common that a morganatic marriage (or some similar arrangement involving families of nonequal status) will pop up in an ancestor list, thus contributing a family whose ancestry cannot be fully traced.

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  • From Peter Stewart@21:1/5 to John Higgins on Thu Nov 18 11:29:40 2021
    On 18-Nov-21 10:23 AM, John Higgins wrote:
    On Wednesday, November 17, 2021 at 1:13:46 PM UTC-8, pss...@optusnet.com.au wrote:
    On 18-Nov-21 6:33 AM, John Higgins wrote:

    I have an american ancestor born 1859 who I have well traced 32/32 of his 3x-great-granparents, and 58/64 4x-great-grandparents and I thought this was quite unusual. I can't even fathom 512/512 for any person anywhere in the world other than a King
    or Queen. In Europe (France, Germany, Italy, Switzerland), there are certainly extremely well documented records 1600->1850, but identifying 256/512 ancestors in the 9th generation is extraordinarilly rare.

    I'm sure Taf was exaggerating; but in the exaggeration has exposed the bias, I think? Those few he *can't* trace are the very ones probably who came from other villages.

    If todd says he has traced someone to this extent, I will take him at his word; Edward VII of England born 1841 has all 512/512 of his ancestors on genealogics.org

    --Joe C

    As to the matter of full slates of ancestors, the genealogist Willhelm Karl, Prinz zu Isenburg (the author of the original version of Europâische Stammtafeln) was able to identify all 1024 of the 1024 ancestors in the 10th generation of his ancestry
    (with a fair number of duplicates, no doubt). I'm not aware of anyone, royal or otherwise, who can match that.
    Probably not too rare in the very rarefied world of German princes in
    his generation and upper echelon of aristocracy - as an Isenburg, he was
    a result of 'Ebenbürtigkeit' over centuries. Blanks in pedigrees would
    probably be more frequently encountered at a higher level, where
    politics mattered more than pride, or lower, where caste breeding just
    didn't enter into the choice of marriage partner.

    Peter Stewart
    There may well be other cases besides the Isenburgs of such a complete ancestor list, but as I said I'm not aware of any - and I don't think either of us is going to go looking for one!

    In my experience of tracing ancestries, it's more common that a morganatic marriage (or some similar arrangement involving families of nonequal status) will pop up in an ancestor list, thus contributing a family whose ancestry cannot be fully traced.

    You're certainly right that I won't be looking, but families like the
    Isenburgs - and there are quite a few of them - took (and some still
    take) Ebenbürtigkeit very seriously indeed. The taint of a moganatic
    marriage in the pedigree would carry as far back as they could trace,
    and for many a Fürst or Prinz uniting with anyone bringing that into his posterity would have been unthinkable. As I said, at a higher level they
    could afford to think of such things, and at a lower level mostly they
    didn't bother too much, but the Isenburgs were among numerous lineages
    at the sweet-spot for overweening snobbery.

    In the British royal family I suppose that no-one since the generation
    of George V could hope to emulate the Isenburg feat of pointless self-satisfaction in this regard.

    Peter Stewart

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  • From Paulo Ricardo Canedo@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 17 16:19:34 2021
    A terça-feira, 16 de novembro de 2021 à(s) 00:19:32 UTC, Paulo Ricardo Canedo escreveu:
    I definitely have my doubts the average person in the Balkans, especially the Orthodox areas, is descended from a Western European of that era. Remember the Great Schism split much of the Balkans from Western Europe and Bosnia, while nominally Catholic,
    was not trusted. In addition, Croatia never appears to have seen many marriages with Western Europe, despite being Catholic. Contact reduced further with the Ottoman expansion.
    Why were there so few marriages between Croatian nobility and Western European nobility despite sharing the same faith?

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  • From Ian Goddard@21:1/5 to joseph cook on Thu Nov 18 11:51:35 2021
    On 17/11/2021 17:37, joseph cook wrote:
    If you look at all 4,400 Billion people in your ancestor tree alive 1200 years ago, and fill them one each with every single one of the 10 million Europeans who lived then who have surviving descendants, you are still left with 4,390 Billion boxes to
    fill in any lopsided way you choose.

    OK, let's note that these 4,400 billion are not individual ancestors but ancestral roles, ARs and work that one a little.

    For every cousin marriage ALL the ancestors of the most recent common
    pair occupy AT LEAST two roles. "At least" because that assumes no
    cousin marriages further back.

    So take X who is the child of a 2nd cousin marriage*. If X has 4,400
    billion ARs that means 2 parents with 2,200 billion ARs each, 4
    grandparents with 1,100 billion ARs each and 8 ggparents with 550
    billion ARs each.

    But 2 of those ggparents each appear twice so for each of them one set
    of ARs duplicates the other. Discounting the 2 sets of duplicates takes
    out 1,100 billion of potential individuals at a stroke.

    This, of course, is the maximum reduction achieved by 2nd cousin
    marriages. Such marriages further back will have less effect but the
    further back you go the greater the probability of finding such
    marriages because there are more people amongst whom to find them.
    Also, with more generations to consider there is the probability of
    finding marriages with longer degrees of cousinage to consider.

    This goes back to a point I made earlier. What looks like an
    exponential curve is really the early stages of a sigmoidal one. The
    only question is how quickly does it flatten out. It may flatten out a
    good deal quicker than many take into consideration.

    I cited one example of this in my own family. One of my paternal
    ggmothers was the daughter of the 4th of a line who all married the
    descendants of a single couple. If we refer to that couple as being in
    G0 they are quadruplicated. If I've remembered and counted correctly
    there are 5 more G0 couples who are duplicated. My other paternal
    ggmother also has a line into this family so in terms of my father and
    hence myself it works out as 1 G0 couple quintuplicated, 3 triplicated
    and 2 duplicated

    Each of those ggmothers has a Hinchliffe line; there are too many
    Hinchliffes hereabouts to make tracing them easy; the name arose locally
    in the early C14th.

    That second paternal ggmother is also descended from a 2nd cousin
    marriage. That marriage is of a Kaye and Kayes turn up in a lot of my
    lines including a few generations back in one half of the quintuplicated
    pair. Most if not all of them will go back to John Kaye of Woodsome,
    recorded in the 1379 subsidy roll.

    Then there's the 4 generations of Wilson of whom 3 married Broadheads
    and the other a Kaye (the Kaye bride being one of 10 children and went
    on to have 20 herself). And the several 2nd cousin marriages in my
    mother's family...

    Yes, that sigmoidal curve can flatten out pretty quickly. And we don't
    fill the boxes by whatever lopsided way we choose, we fill them by
    whatever lopsided way we /find/.

    * I'm assuming 1st cousin marriages as being largely regarded as
    socially unacceptable and sibling marriages even more so outside of
    Egyptian dynasties.

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  • From lancaster.boon@gmail.com@21:1/5 to taf on Thu Nov 18 14:03:26 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 11:10:08 PM UTC+1, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 1:14:10 PM UTC-8, lancast...@gmail.com wrote:

    You think you can be descended from one Ruthenian dirt farmer a 1000 years ago (without
    going into the question of whether this is a realistic category) without being descended from
    all of them?
    Yes.
    This would imply there was a very large population, divided into very strictly divided groups over many centuries.
    An entire ethnic group generally is a large population, and when you factor in endogamy, I think it is not only probable, but likely that there are lines of descent that, just by chance, do not intersect with every other line from every other
    individual at that time, such that being descended from one means being descended from everyone.
    I am not sure if you think I was one of the people giving an "argument", but if you do then this is a misunderstanding.
    I explixitly said, "the argument that commenced this thread." You did not commence this thread.
    All these types of discussions are speculations - at best exploring the impact of different assumptions.
    Yes, indeed. That is really my point - that with a different set of assumptions, one can arrive at a different answer, and hence the statistics being applied to arrive at The Truth are only valid for the specific assumptions made.
    But the further back we go, the smaller the human population gets, and the more amazingly big the number of people in our family tree.
    And likewise the more isolated and inbred the populations get, such that if you miss a connection, there is no guarantee you are going to add it by going just a little bit farther back.
    The isolation of an in-bred group has to be absolutely perfect to stop these numbers from eventually collapsing the sets of all our ancestors.
    Yes, that is true, eventually, but we are not talking about eventually, we are talking about a specific date, and with a specific date, there is the possibility that through the quirks of contingency in individual families and populations, with regard
    to family size and endogamy and just general chance, it is possible for example that a person living in 1000 had such a small number of descendants living in 1200 that they are effectively starting exmansion 200 years after the 'average' bloodline, and
    hence their expanding 'pyramid' of descent might fail to become broad enough, soon enough, to have their bloodline present in one of the infrequent 'breakout' events that rapidly take the bloodlines to distant lands, rather than having to work their way
    across the continent one village at a time.

    You complain that I am demanding 'absolutely perfect' endogamy or everyone is descended from everyone, but you are assuming 'absolutely perfect' distribution of bloodlines across a population, fast enough that every single one of them doesn't miss out
    on riding along with one of the atypical events that provides large-scale spread of the bloodlines into novel populations. Yes, given enough time, it will spread throughout, but I think 'enough time' differs a lot depending on the individual populations
    a bloodline is moving through, and that the sum total of these contingencies may end up with at least some lines missing the boat.

    taf

    "Yes, that is true, eventually, but we are not talking about eventually, we are talking about a specific date, and with a specific date". That covers it for me. I did not intend to defend any specific date. That just becomes talking in circles. Anything
    is possible for a few centuries, as you more-or-less say.

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  • From taf@21:1/5 to joe...@gmail.com on Sun Nov 21 07:21:37 2021
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 4:31:13 PM UTC-8, joe...@gmail.com wrote:

    The more phenomenal piece of this to me is that a "village" could support so many folks marrying without absurd endogamy.

    I never said there wasn't absurd endogamy. That is sort of the whole point.

    taf

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  • From taf@21:1/5 to taf on Sun Nov 21 08:40:52 2021
    On Sunday, November 21, 2021 at 7:21:38 AM UTC-8, taf wrote:
    On Tuesday, November 16, 2021 at 4:31:13 PM UTC-8, joe...@gmail.com wrote:

    The more phenomenal piece of this to me is that a "village" could support so many folks marrying without absurd endogamy.
    I never said there wasn't absurd endogamy. That is sort of the whole point.

    Oh, and don't get hung up on "village". I probably should have said 'parish'.

    Just to amplify this, in one case, all four grandparents had the same surname and were all siblings/first cousins, so we get back four generations (about half of the 250 year span) and the expected pedigree expansion cut in half, but one of the men in
    that generation was a (rare in this local context) convert from Catholicism, and all of the sudden, we aren't dealing with 250 years to descend from everyone - this one man has just 125 years-worth of ancestry to encompass the entire Catholic half (
    actually, larger than half) of the population if his descendants are to have it - not enough time. (And from the perspective of the spread-scenario, it was lucky that man was a Catholic convert, else the family wouldn't have had our first gateway into
    the larger Catholic portion of the local population until even earlier - and that doesn't even mention the Jewish residents who had even less frequent conversion/intermarriage both in and out.) This is just one example of what can happen - in another
    family I have, the pedigree expands out with the expected rapidity and no surname repetition at all, but then in the 4-to-6 generation range, all of the sudden all the same surnames are showing up again and again, while there are almost no new surnames
    even though there are a number of surnames in the registers present throughout the period who don't show up in the pedigree at all. There seems to be some sort of social or geographical phenomenon dividing the parish into separate intramarrying groups.

    Yes, these are specific quirky scenarios, but when we are talking about absolute penetrance across a whole region in a set period of time, it only takes one example of weird $#!t happening in one family in one parish, whether it be extreme endogamy, a
    multi-century non-expanding yet not extinct line, or social divisions that minimize intermarriage among subgroups, to blow up the whole thing - to have the expanding pedigree going back and the expanding cone of descent coming forward just not expanding
    quite rapidly enough, such that they 'just miss each other' and fail to overlap.

    taf

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  • From jean-luc soler@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 22 03:48:05 2021
    Je vais écrire en francais afin d'être clair.

    Je suis d'accord avec TaF

    Alors Je doute fortement que Chaque Islandais descendent de TOUS les grecs de l'an 1000, ou de chaque Juifs du Comtat Venaissin de l'an 1000.

    En effet , les intermariages entre communautés ne sont pas assez récents.

    Juste un exemple. Nous avons la chance a Marseille d'avoir relevés TOUS les registres paroissiaux, et TOUS les registres de notaires de puis 1321.

    Mon arriere Arriere grand mère, (° 1863) Marseillaise, descends 68 fois de Jean Camoin, paysan (°ca 1360), ou 359 fois de Guillaume RICARD, Meunier ca 1300, de manière prouvée (et il y a beaucoup de lignes que j'ignore)

    L'arriere Grand père de la mère de morfils (° ca 1896) descend, 124 fois de Guillaume RICARD

    Mon Fils en descend 515 fois

    Les mariages "Consanguins" entre cousins éloignés sont nombreux et répétés. ... le nombre d'ancêtre théorique de l'an 1000 doit etre au moins 1000 fois plus grand que le nombre d'ancêtres réels.

    A Marseille, il y a peu d'exogamie hors Provence... je suppose que c'est pareil ailleurs... et, il est peu probable, à l'image d'Elisabeth 2 , que chaque Marseillais descende de tous les paysans Ruthènes de l'an 1000...

    1000 ans , ce n'est pas assez
    JL

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  • From Paulo Ricardo Canedo@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 22 16:12:18 2021
    A segunda-feira, 22 de novembro de 2021 à(s) 11:48:07 UTC, jluc...@gmail.com escreveu:
    Je vais écrire en francais afin d'être clair.

    Je suis d'accord avec TaF

    Alors Je doute fortement que Chaque Islandais descendent de TOUS les grecs de l'an 1000, ou de chaque Juifs du Comtat Venaissin de l'an 1000.

    En effet , les intermariages entre communautés ne sont pas assez récents.

    Juste un exemple. Nous avons la chance a Marseille d'avoir relevés TOUS les registres paroissiaux, et TOUS les registres de notaires de puis 1321.

    Mon arriere Arriere grand mère, (° 1863) Marseillaise, descends 68 fois de Jean Camoin, paysan (°ca 1360), ou 359 fois de Guillaume RICARD, Meunier ca 1300, de manière prouvée (et il y a beaucoup de lignes que j'ignore)

    L'arriere Grand père de la mère de morfils (° ca 1896) descend, 124 fois de Guillaume RICARD

    Mon Fils en descend 515 fois

    Les mariages "Consanguins" entre cousins éloignés sont nombreux et répétés. ... le nombre d'ancêtre théorique de l'an 1000 doit etre au moins 1000 fois plus grand que le nombre d'ancêtres réels.

    A Marseille, il y a peu d'exogamie hors Provence... je suppose que c'est pareil ailleurs... et, il est peu probable, à l'image d'Elisabeth 2 , que chaque Marseillais descende de tous les paysans Ruthènes de l'an 1000...

    1000 ans , ce n'est pas assez
    JL

    I definitely don't understand why you thinking writing in French is clear.
    Here is a translation from Google Translator:
    "I will write in French to be clear.

    I agree with TaF

    So I highly doubt that Every Icelandic is descended from ALL Greeks in the year 1000, or every Jew from Comtat Venaissin in the year 1000.

    Indeed, intermarriages between communities are not recent enough.

    Just one example. We are fortunate in Marseille to have recorded ALL the parish registers, and ALL the registers of notaries from then 1321.

    Mon arriere Arriere grand mère, (° 1863) Marseillaise, descend 68 times from Jean Camoin, peasant (° ca 1360), or 359 times from Guillaume RICARD, Meunier ca 1300, in a proven way (and there are many lines that I 'ignore)

    The great grandfather of the mother of morfils (° ca 1896) descends, 124 times from Guillaume RICARD

    My son comes down 515 times
    "Consanguineous" marriages between distant cousins ​​are numerous and repeated. ... the number of theoretical ancestors of the year 1000 must be at least 1000 times greater than the number of real ancestors.

    In Marseille, there is little exogamy outside Provence ... I suppose it is the same elsewhere ... and, like Elisabeth 2, it is unlikely that every Marseillais descended from all the peasants Ruthenians of the year 1000 ...

    1000 years is not enough
    JL"

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  • From joseph cook@21:1/5 to Paulo Ricardo Canedo on Tue Nov 23 06:26:55 2021
    On Monday, November 22, 2021 at 7:12:19 PM UTC-5, Paulo Ricardo Canedo wrote:
    A segunda-feira, 22 de novembro de 2021 à(s) 11:48:07 UTC, jluc...@gmail.com escreveu:
    Je vais écrire en francais afin d'être clair.

    I definitely don't understand why you thinking writing in French is clear. Here is a translation from Google Translator:
    "I will write in French to be clear.

    People tend to write more precisely in their native language. That is all that is meant here, assuredly.
    --Joe C

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  • From jean-luc soler@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 23 07:44:08 2021
    Indeed


    Jl

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