On 23-Dec-22 3:50 AM, Jinny Wallerstedt/Girl 57 wrote:whose woman was of childbearing age? Or were couples of different degrees of consanguinity required to apply for a dispensation even if the woman was likely/certainly too old to have children? Or is there no safe assumption as the answers here varied
Hi, all. I'm looking at a dispensation that says the couple was granted permission to marry even though they were found to have been related in the third degree, not fourth (as originally stated). Can I pretty safely assume that this was a couple
The age of the prospective bride was not a consideration if she had
reached the minimum qualifying age. The belief that God is omnipotent
means that his will has no constraints, and therefore he may cause a
woman to conceive a child at any age - as with Elizabeth, the mother at advanced age of John the Baptist (Luke's gospel says "they had no child, because that Elisabeth was barren, and they both were now well stricken
in years").
Peter Stewart
--Thank you, Peter. I hadn't thought of it from this (essential) angle, and of course it makes sense. I'm looking forward to a time when, with more knowledge, I'll more naturally think of issues like this in their entire historical and cultural context.
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Hi, all. I'm looking at a dispensation that says the couple was granted permission to marry even though they were found to have been related in the third degree, not fourth (as originally stated). Can I pretty safely assume that this was a couple whosewoman was of childbearing age? Or were couples of different degrees of consanguinity required to apply for a dispensation even if the woman was likely/certainly too old to have children? Or is there no safe assumption as the answers here varied from era
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