• Re: The Miracle of Special Relativit

    From Lou@21:1/5 to RichD on Thu Oct 26 03:05:19 2023
    On Wednesday, 25 October 2023 at 23:08:08 UTC+1, RichD wrote:
    On October 25, Lou wrote:
    Obviously, like Paul and other relativists, Python never accepted the Copernican Revolution and still thinks the sun rotates around the earth.
    It does. So do all the heavens, on a daily and annual basis, revolve around the earth. This has been observed for thousands of years. That's science: observations, a/k/a reality.

    Then, being human, we invent "explanations" for those observations. Which
    is the other part of science. And being human, with limited neural capacity, we choose the simplest among competing explanations. (look up Ockham)
    Why are we built this way? It's complicated, ask Darwin -

    Astronomers found Copernicus simpler than Ptolemy. The rest is history -

    So yeah, the sun rotates around the earth. Just watch the sky, to verify this truth -

    It’s odd then , don’t you think, that despite admitting the earth does rotate
    at 1600kph ( at the equator) you and the others don’t think that a person standing
    on the earths surface and rotating with the earth at 1600 kph is not considered to
    be accelerating, when all the reference says that an object travelling at a constant
    speed in a circle is considered to be accelerating.
    And I also think it’s odd that if you do accept that the earth is rotating eastward around
    it’s axis at 1600 kph then why do you think this eastward rotation cannot be used by NASA to give its rockets an extra boost in speed to reach escape velocity.
    When in fact even NASA admits it does use this extra 1600 kph velocity to boost it’s rockets into orbit.
    And finally I think it’s odd that despite well accepted wisdom about how a spinning
    disc can store energy and release it tangentallly as it rotates you still do not think
    any tangental force in the direction of its rotation on the atoms at its edge will
    be present. Despite the fact that NASA itself uses this tangental eastward force
    to assist its rocket launches.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flywheel_energy_storage

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Python@21:1/5 to All on Thu Oct 26 19:50:50 2023
    Le 26/10/2023 à 12:05, Lou a écrit :
    On Wednesday, 25 October 2023 at 23:08:08 UTC+1, RichD wrote:
    On October 25, Lou wrote:
    Obviously, like Paul and other relativists, Python never accepted the
    Copernican Revolution and still thinks the sun rotates around the earth.
    It does. So do all the heavens, on a daily and annual basis, revolve around >> the earth. This has been observed for thousands of years. That's science:
    observations, a/k/a reality.

    Then, being human, we invent "explanations" for those observations. Which
    is the other part of science. And being human, with limited neural capacity, >> we choose the simplest among competing explanations. (look up Ockham)
    Why are we built this way? It's complicated, ask Darwin -

    Astronomers found Copernicus simpler than Ptolemy. The rest is history -

    So yeah, the sun rotates around the earth. Just watch the sky, to verify this truth -

    It’s odd then , don’t you think, that despite admitting the earth does rotate
    at 1600kph ( at the equator) you and the others don’t think that a person standing
    on the earths surface and rotating with the earth at 1600 kph is not considered to
    be accelerating, when all the reference says that an object travelling at a constant
    speed in a circle is considered to be accelerating.

    Sure Lou, rotating motion implied an acceleration. But not a tangential
    one: a centripetal one. Do the math. This is basic Newtonian physics.

    And I also think it’s odd that if you do accept that the earth is rotating eastward around
    it’s axis at 1600 kph then why do you think this eastward rotation cannot be
    used by NASA to give its rockets an extra boost in speed to reach escape velocity.
    When in fact even NASA admits it does use this extra 1600 kph velocity to boost
    it’s rockets into orbit.

    What is used is an initial velocity wrt to ECI frame (the one that make
    sense when trying to obtain orbital speed), it not a force.

    And finally I think it’s odd that despite well accepted wisdom about how a spinning
    disc can store energy and release it tangentallly as it rotates you still do not think
    any tangental force in the direction of its rotation on the atoms at its edge will
    be present. Despite the fact that NASA itself uses this tangental eastward force
    to assist its rocket launches.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flywheel_energy_storage

    Tangential velocity does not mean tangential *force*.

    Confusing both, as you do, is a kind of weird demented (not even)
    pre-Galilean prejudice.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Python on Fri Oct 27 05:35:23 2023
    On Thursday, 26 October 2023 at 18:50:55 UTC+1, Python wrote:
    Le 26/10/2023 à 12:05, Lou a écrit :
    On Wednesday, 25 October 2023 at 23:08:08 UTC+1, RichD wrote:
    On October 25, Lou wrote:
    Obviously, like Paul and other relativists, Python never accepted the >>> Copernican Revolution and still thinks the sun rotates around the earth. >> It does. So do all the heavens, on a daily and annual basis, revolve around
    the earth. This has been observed for thousands of years. That's science: >> observations, a/k/a reality.

    Then, being human, we invent "explanations" for those observations. Which >> is the other part of science. And being human, with limited neural capacity,
    we choose the simplest among competing explanations. (look up Ockham)
    Why are we built this way? It's complicated, ask Darwin -

    Astronomers found Copernicus simpler than Ptolemy. The rest is history - >>
    So yeah, the sun rotates around the earth. Just watch the sky, to verify this truth -

    It’s odd then , don’t you think, that despite admitting the earth does rotate
    at 1600kph ( at the equator) you and the others don’t think that a person standing
    on the earths surface and rotating with the earth at 1600 kph is not considered to
    be accelerating, when all the reference says that an object travelling at a constant
    speed in a circle is considered to be accelerating.
    Sure Lou, rotating motion implied an acceleration. But not a tangential
    one: a centripetal one. Do the math. This is basic Newtonian physics.

    Like I said...you, Rich D and Paul don’t think the earth rotates.
    Ever heard of Copernicus?

    And I also think it’s odd that if you do accept that the earth is rotating eastward around
    it’s axis at 1600 kph then why do you think this eastward rotation cannot be
    used by NASA to give its rockets an extra boost in speed to reach escape velocity.
    When in fact even NASA admits it does use this extra 1600 kph velocity to boost
    it’s rockets into orbit.
    What is used is an initial velocity wrt to ECI frame (the one that make sense when trying to obtain orbital speed), it not a force.

    Pick up your bicycle so the front wheel spins freely.
    Spin it. Then touch your hand to the spinning tread.
    If there is no force in the spinning wheel then your hand
    will not be pushed away tangentially to the spin..
    Unfortunately for your theory...your hand will feel a force.

    And finally I think it’s odd that despite well accepted wisdom about how a spinning
    disc can store energy and release it tangentallly as it rotates you still do not think
    any tangental force in the direction of its rotation on the atoms at its edge will
    be present. Despite the fact that NASA itself uses this tangental eastward force
    to assist its rocket launches.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Flywheel_energy_storage
    Tangential velocity does not mean tangential *force*.

    Confusing both, as you do, is a kind of weird demented (not even) pre-Galilean prejudice.

    Said the guy who doesn’t think the earth rotates or that a spinning flywheel cannot store energy

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Fri Oct 27 06:27:22 2023
    On Thursday, 26 October 2023 at 20:48:55 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 25.10.2023 21:44, skrev Lou:
    On Wednesday, 25 October 2023 at 19:04:00 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 25.10.2023 14:00, skrev Lou:
    On Wednesday, 25 October 2023 at 10:43:26 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote: >>>> What I didn't know, but now have learned, is that because it
    is a gravitational force perpendicular to my velocity relative
    to the Earth, I am subject to a horizontal eastward 1600kph force from >>>> the planet below me.

    Just noticed the sneaky dishonest phrasing of this paragraph.
    You pretended that I had said the downward force of gravity was
    the source of the 1600kph horizontal force.
    Den 25.10.2023 10:47, skrev Lou:
    Notice that if there were no gravity from earth then you and the table would
    travel in a straight line at a uniform speed. And no longer be subject to the
    Horizontal eastward 1600kph force from the planet below you.
    I see. No gravity, no horizontal force.

    If you have a spinning flywheel and attached a tiny Paul to its spinning outer perimeter to simulate gravitational pull and then released Paul to
    simulate no gravity pulling on your tiny Paul. Your tiny doppelgänger would suddenly fly off into space at a constant speed in a straight line now that
    it was no longer receiving force from being attached to the rotating wheel.
    Any problems with that?

    Den 25.10.2023 10:47, skrev Lou: >>>>> But there is another external force...it’s called gravity. And it’s
    constantly changing your direction of motion and preventing you from >>>>> leaving the surface of the planet and be freed of that constant 1600 kph
    force imparted to you from the planet beneath you.
    I see. With gravity, a 1600kph horizontal force.

    Really? Wow. How do you figure the downward force of gravity suddenly
    points horizontally?!
    Special General Relativity?

    Exactly. Gravity’s downward force doesn’t have anything to do
    with the horizontal 1600 kph force.
    Hard to make up your mind? :-D

    No. More like Paul knows he can’t prove the earth doesn’t rotate.
    So he pretends in one sentence that I said gravity force pushes horizontally and then when I point out he’s desperate and lying about what I said...
    He pretends his lies are my fault!!

    A horizontal force due to earths
    1600kph eastward rotation, which NASA uses to assist its rockets
    to counter gravity’s downward force in achieving escape velocity.
    As stated repeatedly above in my quotes.
    Yes. Your wrong explanation is stated over and over.

    Poor desperate Pauls lies get bigger and bigger with each lie.
    So far you have failed to supply any evidence to refute my
    claim that NASA uses eastward rotation of earth to assist its rockets in achieving escape velocity.


    | On Monday, 23 October 2023 at 22:04:42 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    In the ECI frame, the rocket is moving eastwards at 1600 km/h
    before it is launched, when NO HORIZONTAL FORCE is acting on it.
    So when the rocket fires, it is obviously best to accelerate eastwards, where you start with the HORIZONTAL speed 1600 km/h eastwards.

    Best to accelerate eastwards 😂🤣😂💩💩
    Hilarious.
    I can just hear the NASA Godard flight Center conversation at liftoff:
    Flight control to Bob: “Hey Bob..which direction do you want today. East or west?”
    Bob: “”Ummm..let me see,... I think it’s best today if we do it eastward “


    The 1600 km/h speed doesn't "counter gravity’s downward force",
    it only give the rocket an initial horizontal 1600 km/h speed
    in the ECI-frame.

    How could it “only give the rocket an initial horizontal 1600 km/h speed “ if you say there is no horizontal force acting on rocket?
    Let me guess...Generally Special Woodland Troll Relativity?


    (Horizontal speed is tangential, that is perpendicular to radius
    vector from Earth's centre. Vertical is parallel to radius vector.)

    Have you never seen the liftoff of a rocket on TV?
    Before liftoff, the rocket is vertical and moving sideways
    with the speed 1600 km/h in the ECI frame along with the ground.
    When the rocket fires, the thrust of the rocket engine will
    overcome gravity’s downward force, the rocket will lift off
    and accelerate vertically. The vertical speed will increase
    while the sideways horizontal speed will remain the same.
    Some time after liftoff the rocket will veer off eastwards

    Why does it veer off eastward? Magic?

    and then the tangential speed will increase from the initial
    1600km/h.

    (I don't know why I bother to explain what you seem not
    to be able to understand.)

    Are you feeling Ok?

    Well .. my stomach hurts a bit. Laughed too much!

    Have you got echophelia?

    No, I have got echophobia.

    So please don't state again what you have stated repeatedly.

    ____________________________________


    See the simulation of satellites:
    https://paulba.no/Satellites.html
    Choose the scenario "Rockets in opposite directions"

    Two rockets are launched from the ground with the same
    accelerations, but one (green A) is going eastwards,
    and the other (red B) is going westwards.

    The first stage for both rockets is:
    accelerated at 40 m/s² vertically for 200 seconds

    The second stage is accelerated at 30 m/s² for 300 seconds,
    Green A is accelerating 120⁰ to the east of vertical.
    Red B is accelerating 120⁰ to the west of vertical.

    If you don't want to run the simulation,
    screenshots of a run can be found here:

    https://paulba.no/temp/Satellites_run.pdf

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Oct 27 20:49:06 2023
    Den 27.10.2023 15:27, skrev Lou:
    On Thursday, 26 October 2023 at 20:48:55 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Poor desperate Pauls lies get bigger and bigger with each lie.
    So far you have failed to supply any evidence to refute my
    claim that NASA uses eastward rotation of earth to assist its rockets in achieving escape velocity.

    The point is that I never disputed the obvious fact that most
    satellites not in polar orbit are orbiting in the same direction as
    the Earth is spinning.

    Quite the contrary, I have explained why a below:
    And this explanation is correct.


    | On Monday, 23 October 2023 at 22:04:42 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    In the ECI frame, the rocket is moving eastwards at 1600 km/h
    before it is launched, when NO HORIZONTAL FORCE is acting on it.
    So when the rocket fires, it is obviously best to accelerate eastwards, >> |> where you start with the HORIZONTAL speed 1600 km/h eastwards.


    Best to accelerate eastwards 😂🤣😂💩💩
    Hilarious.
    I can just hear the NASA Godard flight Center conversation at liftoff:
    Flight control to Bob: “Hey Bob..which direction do you want today. East or west?”
    Bob: “”Ummm..let me see,... I think it’s best today if we do it eastward “

    Are you drunk?


    The 1600 km/h speed doesn't "counter gravity’s downward force",
    it only give the rocket an initial horizontal 1600 km/h speed
    in the ECI-frame.

    How could it “only give the rocket an initial horizontal 1600 km/h speed “
    if you say there is no horizontal force acting on rocket?
    Let me guess...Generally Special Woodland Troll Relativity?

    Can't you read?
    "the rocket is moving eastwards at 1600 km/h before it is launched,
    when NO HORIZONTAL FORCE is acting on it."
    And of course it will keep moving at 1600 km eastwards immediately
    after launch because no horizontal force is acting on it.
    Inertia!

    How is it possible to fail to understand the obvious?

    And this is classical, Newtonian mechanics.


    (Horizontal speed is tangential, that is perpendicular to radius
    vector from Earth's centre. Vertical is parallel to radius vector.)

    Have you never seen the liftoff of a rocket on TV?
    Before liftoff, the rocket is vertical and moving sideways
    with the speed 1600 km/h in the ECI frame along with the ground.
    When the rocket fires, the thrust of the rocket engine will
    overcome gravity’s downward force, the rocket will lift off
    and accelerate vertically. The vertical speed will increase
    while the sideways horizontal speed will remain the same.
    Some time after liftoff the rocket will veer off eastwards

    Why does it veer off eastward? Magic?

    Yes. Rockets are steered by magic. Didn't you know?

    and then the tangential speed will increase from the initial
    1600km/h.


    Got it now?

    Off course not.

    ____________________________________


    See the simulation of satellites:
    https://paulba.no/Satellites.html
    Choose the scenario "Rockets in opposite directions"

    Two rockets are launched from the ground with the same
    accelerations, but one (green A) is going eastwards,
    and the other (red B) is going westwards.

    The first stage for both rockets is:
    accelerated at 40 m/s² vertically for 200 seconds

    The second stage is accelerated at 30 m/s² for 300 seconds,
    Green A is accelerating 120⁰ to the east of vertical.
    Red B is accelerating 120⁰ to the west of vertical.

    If you don't want to run the simulation,
    screenshots of a run can be found here:

    https://paulba.no/temp/Satellites_run.pdf

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Fri Oct 27 13:30:29 2023
    On Friday, 27 October 2023 at 19:47:53 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 27.10.2023 15:27, skrev Lou:
    On Thursday, 26 October 2023 at 20:48:55 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Poor desperate Pauls lies get bigger and bigger with each lie.
    So far you have failed to supply any evidence to refute my
    claim that NASA uses eastward rotation of earth to assist its rockets in achieving escape velocity.
    The point is that I never disputed the obvious fact that most
    satellites not in polar orbit are orbiting in the same direction as
    the Earth is spinning.

    Quite the contrary, I have explained why a below:
    And this explanation is correct.


    You didn’t explain anything except confirm what I already told you.
    Which is that NASA uses the force of the 1600 kph eastward rotation of
    the earth to assist its rockets in achieving escape velocity to get into
    orbit.
    So far none of you relativists has been able to disprove this fact.
    And repeating it and pretending by repeating a fact disproves it is
    a fact. Is typical of a relativist like yourself who understands little of physics.
    Fact is that classical theory predicts that the force responsible for an objects
    rotation (acceleration) around an axis will decrease the natural resonant frequency of caesium atoms (ie its “tick rate”)...the greater the force the
    atom experiences.
    A prediction confirmed by various experiments including Hafael Keating.
    Who confirmed that the faster the rotational velocity of the caesium atoms relative to the ECI frame...the greater the force on the atoms and the slower the observed tick rate will be.
    So it’s up to you relativists to disprove this successful prediction made
    by classical theory. Good luck.
    And while you are at it you might as well try to prove your other
    ridiculous claims like: The Earth doesn’t rotate!, or...That earths gravity doesn’t
    point downwards it points horizontally (😂), or ...That rotating
    flywheels cannot store energy!!


    | On Monday, 23 October 2023 at 22:04:42 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote: >> |> In the ECI frame, the rocket is moving eastwards at 1600 km/h
    before it is launched, when NO HORIZONTAL FORCE is acting on it.
    So when the rocket fires, it is obviously best to accelerate eastwards,
    where you start with the HORIZONTAL speed 1600 km/h eastwards.


    Best to accelerate eastwards
    Hilarious.
    I can just hear the NASA Godard flight Center conversation at liftoff: Flight control to Bob: “Hey Bob..which direction do you want today. East or west?”
    Bob: “”Ummm..let me see,... I think it’s best today if we do it eastward “
    Are you drunk?

    The 1600 km/h speed doesn't "counter gravity’s downward force",
    it only give the rocket an initial horizontal 1600 km/h speed
    in the ECI-frame.

    How could it “only give the rocket an initial horizontal 1600 km/h speed “
    if you say there is no horizontal force acting on rocket?
    Let me guess...Generally Special Woodland Troll Relativity?
    Can't you read?
    "the rocket is moving eastwards at 1600 km/h before it is launched,
    when NO HORIZONTAL FORCE is acting on it."
    And of course it will keep moving at 1600 km eastwards immediately
    after launch because no horizontal force is acting on it.
    Inertia!

    How is it possible to fail to understand the obvious?

    And this is classical, Newtonian mechanics.

    (Horizontal speed is tangential, that is perpendicular to radius
    vector from Earth's centre. Vertical is parallel to radius vector.)

    Have you never seen the liftoff of a rocket on TV?
    Before liftoff, the rocket is vertical and moving sideways
    with the speed 1600 km/h in the ECI frame along with the ground.
    When the rocket fires, the thrust of the rocket engine will
    overcome gravity’s downward force, the rocket will lift off
    and accelerate vertically. The vertical speed will increase
    while the sideways horizontal speed will remain the same.
    Some time after liftoff the rocket will veer off eastwards

    Why does it veer off eastward? Magic?
    Yes. Rockets are steered by magic. Didn't you know?
    and then the tangential speed will increase from the initial
    1600km/h.

    Got it now?

    Off course not.
    ____________________________________


    See the simulation of satellites:
    https://paulba.no/Satellites.html
    Choose the scenario "Rockets in opposite directions"

    Two rockets are launched from the ground with the same
    accelerations, but one (green A) is going eastwards,
    and the other (red B) is going westwards.

    The first stage for both rockets is:
    accelerated at 40 m/s² vertically for 200 seconds

    The second stage is accelerated at 30 m/s² for 300 seconds,
    Green A is accelerating 120⁰ to the east of vertical.
    Red B is accelerating 120⁰ to the west of vertical.

    If you don't want to run the simulation,
    screenshots of a run can be found here:

    https://paulba.no/temp/Satellites_run.pdf

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/
    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From RichD@21:1/5 to Lou on Fri Oct 27 14:06:30 2023
    On October 27, Lou wrote:
    Fact is that classical theory predicts that the force responsible for an objects
    rotation (acceleration) around an axis will decrease the natural resonant frequency of caesium atoms (ie its “tick rate”)...the greater the force the
    atom experiences.
    A prediction confirmed by various experiments including Hafael Keating.
    Who confirmed that the faster the rotational velocity of the caesium atoms relative to the ECI frame...the greater the force on the atoms and the slower
    the observed tick rate will be.
    So it’s up to you relativists to disprove this successful prediction made by classical theory.

    'classical theory' refers to a pre-quantum, or pre-relativity era,
    depending on context. That would be 1905 or 1920.

    At that time, little was known about atoms, and nothing about
    atomic resonances. Classical theory says nothing about such
    resonances. Those "predictions" are nought but your imagination.

    --
    Rich

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Oct 28 00:33:39 2023
    Den 27.10.2023 22:30, skrev Lou:
    On Friday, 27 October 2023 at 19:47:53 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 27.10.2023 15:27, skrev Lou:
    On Thursday, 26 October 2023 at 20:48:55 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    Poor desperate Pauls lies get bigger and bigger with each lie.
    So far you have failed to supply any evidence to refute my
    claim that NASA uses eastward rotation of earth to assist its rockets in >>> achieving escape velocity.

    The point is that I never disputed the obvious fact that most
    satellites not in polar orbit are orbiting in the same direction as
    the Earth is spinning.

    Quite the contrary, I have explained why a below:
    And this explanation is correct.


    | On Monday, 23 October 2023 at 22:04:42 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote: >>>> |> In the ECI frame, the rocket is moving eastwards at 1600 km/h
    before it is launched, when NO HORIZONTAL FORCE is acting on it.
    So when the rocket fires, it is obviously best to accelerate eastwards, >>>> |> where you start with the HORIZONTAL speed 1600 km/h eastwards.


    Have you never seen the liftoff of a rocket on TV?
    Before liftoff, the rocket is vertical and moving sideways
    with the speed 1600 km/h in the ECI frame along with the ground.
    When the rocket fires, the thrust of the rocket engine will
    overcome gravity’s downward force, the rocket will lift off
    and accelerate vertically. The vertical speed will increase
    while the sideways horizontal speed will remain the same.
    Some time after liftoff the rocket will veer off eastwards

    You didn’t explain anything except confirm what I already told you.
    Which is that NASA uses the force of the 1600 kph eastward rotation of
    the earth to assist its rockets in achieving escape velocity to get into orbit.
    So far none of you relativists has been able to disprove this fact.
    And repeating it and pretending by repeating a fact disproves it is
    a fact. Is typical of a relativist like yourself who understands little of physics.

    I have confirmed what you told me,
    and have tried to disprove what you told me? :-D

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to RichD on Sat Oct 28 06:12:30 2023
    On Friday, 27 October 2023 at 22:06:33 UTC+1, RichD wrote:
    On October 27, Lou wrote:
    Fact is that classical theory predicts that the force responsible for an objects
    rotation (acceleration) around an axis will decrease the natural resonant frequency of caesium atoms (ie its “tick rate”)...the greater the force the
    atom experiences.
    A prediction confirmed by various experiments including Hafael Keating. Who confirmed that the faster the rotational velocity of the caesium atoms relative to the ECI frame...the greater the force on the atoms and the slower
    the observed tick rate will be.
    So it’s up to you relativists to disprove this successful prediction made
    by classical theory.
    'classical theory' refers to a pre-quantum, or pre-relativity era,
    depending on context. That would be 1905 or 1920.

    At that time, little was known about atoms, and nothing about
    atomic resonances. Classical theory says nothing about such
    resonances. Those "predictions" are nought but your imagination.

    I think you will find that going back at least to the 1800’s science was aware
    that adding mass or weight to a resonating system (harmonic oscillator)
    reduced the natural frequency of the resonant system.
    Furthermore ...yes..You are correct. In Einsteins time little was known about atoms and atomic resonance. Your argument therefore falls flat on its face. Because EINSTEIN didnt even know that atoms were resonant systems or
    harmonic oscillators. He predicted time itself would change due to GR magic. Not Harmonic oscillators.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paparios on Wed Nov 1 14:49:30 2023
    On Wednesday, 1 November 2023 at 17:25:22 UTC, Paparios wrote:
    El miércoles, 1 de noviembre de 2023 a las 10:42:37 UTC-3, Lou escribió:
    On Wednesday, 1 November 2023 at 13:11:19 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 01.11.2023 11:16, skrev Lou:

    If the closest to an inertial frame in this case is the ECI frame, then
    according to Newton it needs *force* to change speed or direction. Notice that you on the earth surface are continually changing direction
    as you rotate in the ECI frame. If you say that no force acts on you or the rocket before launch then how do you change direction in
    the ECI frame without the help of any external force?
    Well said, Lou!

    When you know this, why did you then call
    the following "Pure and total nonsense"?
    On October 24, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    According to Newton's gravitation there is a force acting on you.
    F = GMm/r²,
    where G is the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth,
    m is your mass, and r is the radius of the Earth.
    The direction of this force is downwards towards the centre of
    the Earth.

    In the non rotating Earth centred frame of reference, your velocity
    is tangential to the surface (horizontal) and towards the east.
    Your speed is constant v = 465.1⋅cos(latitude) m/s because
    no force with direction along the velocity is acting on you.

    So there is only one force acting on you. It is perpendicular
    to your velocity in the ECI frame (vertical) and is giving you
    a centripetal acceleration GM/r² which is making you go
    in a circle.
    I said your statement was pure and total nonsense because it is.
    Your above quoted piece of nonsense you wrote has nothing to
    do with what I have been posting and in particular what I just posted to Rick.
    You pretend g force is r^2.
    I explicitly have said it’s r. (As relativity does)
    You said there is no horizontal force.
    I said there is. ( because Newton says there is for any rotating object) You said there is only one downward force acting on you and the rocket.
    I have consistently said there are 2 forces. One horizontal due
    to rotation acceleration and one vertical due to gravity.
    Only an insane person like yourself could pretend your nonsense
    bears ANY similarity to what I have been saying.
    Your nonsense isn’t even consistent with Newton.

    "there are 2 forces. One horizontal due to rotation acceleration and one vertical due to gravity".
    Amazing and very funny nonsense!!!!!

    Paul couldn’t answer this question. Can you?
    (I doubt it.):

    Lift a bicycle wheel up off the ground. Spin it with your free
    hand.
    Then touch that hand to the freely spinning wheel. According
    to Paul you should feel no tangental force act on your hand.
    Because he says there is no tangental force in a spinning
    mass.

    Yet something forced your hand tangentally away from
    the spinning wheel when you touched it!!!
    Where did that tangental force come from if you and Paul say it
    doesn’t exist?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From RichD@21:1/5 to Lou on Wed Nov 1 15:07:26 2023
    On November, Lou wrote:
    Lift a bicycle wheel up off the ground. Spin it with your free hand.
    Then touch that hand to the freely spinning wheel. According
    to Paul you should feel no tangental force act on your hand.
    Yet something forced your hand tangentally away from
    the spinning wheel when you touched it!!!
    Where did that tangental force come from if you and Paul say it
    doesn’t exist?

    Momentum. Newton's third. Elasticity of materials.

    If a motor is attached to the wheel axis, then your argument
    has some content. A spinning automotive tire, in gear, has
    momentum and tangential velocity, and also force (torque),
    to maintain speed against resistance. The system of rocket
    and eastern launch doesn't work that way.

    If the wheel hub disengages from the axle, and the tire rolls away,
    the torque disappears. No force.

    You have flunked a quiz that Newton could solve, 400 years ago.

    --
    Rich

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to RichD on Wed Nov 1 15:42:35 2023
    On Wednesday, 1 November 2023 at 22:07:28 UTC, RichD wrote:
    On November, Lou wrote:
    Lift a bicycle wheel up off the ground. Spin it with your free hand.
    Then touch that hand to the freely spinning wheel. According
    to Paul you should feel no tangental force act on your hand.
    Yet something forced your hand tangentally away from
    the spinning wheel when you touched it!!!
    Where did that tangental force come from if you and Paul say it
    doesn’t exist?
    Momentum. Newton's third. Elasticity of materials.

    If a motor is attached to the wheel axis, then your argument
    has some content. A spinning automotive tire, in gear, has
    momentum and tangential velocity, and also force (torque),
    to maintain speed against resistance. The system of rocket
    and eastern launch doesn't work that way.

    If the wheel hub disengages from the axle, and the tire rolls away,
    the torque disappears. No force.

    You have flunked a quiz that Newton could solve, 400 years ago.

    Calling force momentum doesn’t alter the fact that a freely spinning
    wheel, without external force or torque or whatever you want to call it,
    will still exert a tangental force on any object that touches it.
    You ignore all the physics behind flywheel energy storage.
    The whole point of flywheel energy storage is to store energy that can
    then be released later as force by a wheel when it is *not* being spun
    by an external force.

    What you and Paul try to get out of admitting is that if the earth didn’t spin, gravity would still exert its downward force on the Caesium atoms
    And Hafael Keating would still get their observed tick rates. (which
    they attribute to GR.)
    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity.
    And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in the ECI frame.
    And that’s why it also effects an additional seperate decrease in the tick rates which
    Hafael Keating attribute to SR.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Thu Nov 2 00:15:38 2023
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity. And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in the ECI frame.

    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no
    force on them whatsoever, from any source.

    Besides, if there were a force, it would go as GM/r^2, which doesn't
    match GR's inverse r relationship.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Volney on Thu Nov 2 04:37:30 2023
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity. And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in
    the ECI frame.
    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no force on them whatsoever, from any source.


    This is an answer that is a ‘have it two ways’ answer only a relativist would have the nerve to make: “There’s a force of gravity in free fall when calculating for the (imaginary) “time dilation” effects using GR .
    But no force of gravity in free fall for a classical model.”
    :D
    You probably don’t even realise that your claims are contradictory.
    Anyways If there was no force of gravity acting on them, there would be no free fall. That’s why they are falling. The force of gravity is pushing them.

    Besides, if there were a force, it would go as GM/r^2, which doesn't
    match GR's inverse r relationship.

    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of gravity
    at different altitudes for a classical model have to be calculated by incorrectly using r^2 to make sure the prediction is false.
    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at different alttudes using just r.
    You also ignores the fact that you were previously unable to supply
    any calculation to refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow
    of earth at different altitudes falls off with r. Not r^2.
    I provided you with all the data and calculations. You were unable to refute it.
    So you didn’t answer and pretended that by not supplying any calculations
    to back up your false claims about r^2 you could avoid having to admit you failed. A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven
    wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the
    same false fact free claim again.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Tom Roberts@21:1/5 to Lou on Thu Nov 2 23:47:26 2023
    On 11/2/23 6:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of
    gravity at different altitudes for a classical model have to be
    calculated by incorrectly using r^2 to make sure the prediction is
    false.

    No. One must use 1/r^2 to model the gravitational force at different
    altitudes (values of r) to make sure THE MODEL AGREES WITH MEASUREMENTS.

    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at
    different alttudes using just r.

    More nonsense -- GR has no "gravitational force". In the Newtonian limit
    of GR, there is a gravitational force that goes as 1/r^2 (as in
    Newtonian gravitation).

    Your fundamental problem is that you just do not know what "force"
    means. Ditto for just about every technical word you use. You REALLY
    need to learn basic physics before attempting to write about it.

    Tom Roberts

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Fri Nov 3 00:52:48 2023
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity. >>> And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in
    the ECI frame.
    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no
    force on them whatsoever, from any source.


    This is an answer that is a ‘have it two ways’ answer only a relativist would have the nerve to make: “There’s a force of gravity in free fall when calculating for the (imaginary) “time dilation” effects using GR .

    No, there is no force! The GR effects are inversely proportional to r,
    not r^2, so GMm/r doesn't even have dimensionality of force, while
    GMm/r^2 does. You seem to think everything is a force, including the
    tangential velocity of a launched rocket. Which is, obviously, a
    velocity, not a force.

    But no force of gravity in free fall for a classical model.”

    A free falling object doesn't experience any force.
    And this is no double standard, since GMm/r is not even a force, while
    GMm/r^2 is.

    You probably don’t even realise that your claims are contradictory.

    Since GMm/r isn't even a force, no contradiction.

    Anyways If there was no force of gravity acting on them, there would be no free fall. That’s why they are falling. The force of gravity is pushing them.

    In free fall, there is no effect of gravity, pretty much by definition.
    That's why astronauts float around the space station (orbits are freefall).

    Besides, if there were a force, it would go as GM/r^2, which doesn't
    match GR's inverse r relationship.

    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of gravity
    at different altitudes for a classical model have to be calculated by incorrectly using r^2

    That is not incorrect, that's just plain Newtonian physics!

    to make sure the prediction is false.

    Newton wanted to help prove relativity?

    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at different alttudes using just r.

    Once again, it is not even a force!

    You also ignores the fact that you were previously unable to supply
    any calculation to refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow
    of earth at different altitudes falls off with r. Not r^2.

    First, the shadow is irrelevant for this discussion. Second, the shadow
    area is not proportional to either 1/r nor 1/r^2. At large distances,
    where the sine of the angle of the edge of the shadowing object can be approximated as 1 (meaning a very small angle) it is approximately
    proportional to 1/r^2. For close distances once cannot make that
    assumption, the function is more complex, involving the angle of the
    center of the object-observer-edge of the object. This is not
    proportional to 1/r (or 1/r^2).

    I provided you with all the data and calculations. You were unable to refute it.
    So you didn’t answer and pretended that by not supplying any calculations to back up your false claims about r^2 you could avoid having to admit you failed.

    I'm not about to look up the near distance function for you. For large distances it is close to 1/r^2 as the source is pointlike (subtended
    angle almost 0).

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the
    same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the
    effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to Tom Roberts on Fri Nov 3 00:06:49 2023
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 05:47:40 UTC+1, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/2/23 6:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of
    gravity at different altitudes for a classical model have to be
    calculated by incorrectly using r^2 to make sure the prediction is
    false.
    No. One must use 1/r^2 to model the gravitational force at different altitudes (values of r) to make sure THE MODEL AGREES WITH MEASUREMENTS.
    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at
    different alttudes using just r.
    More nonsense -- GR has no "gravitational force".

    Try to explain it to your fellow idiot Paul, I didn't
    succeed.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 3 15:14:02 2023
    Den 01.11.2023 22:49, skrev Lou:

    Lift a bicycle wheel up off the ground. Spin it with your free
    hand.
    Then touch that hand to the freely spinning wheel. According
    to Paul you should feel no tangental force act on your hand.

    Lou, I am responding to your nonsense only because
    I resent that you claim I have said something I never did.

    Of course there is a tangential force on your hand when
    you touch the wheel. It's called friction.

    The heat that's burning your hand comes from the rotational
    energy stored in the spinning wheel. The wheel will slow down.

    Because he says there is no tangental force in a spinning
    mass.

    There is no tangential force acting on the rubber in
    the wheel when you don't touch it. And the tangential force
    that is acting on the rubber when you touch it is in
    the opposite direction of the velocity, and in the opposite
    direction of the force that is acting on your hand.

    Newton's third law.

    The only force that is acting on the rubber when you don't touch
    the wheel is the centripetal force mediated through the spokes,
    giving the rubber the centripetal acceleration v²/r, where v is
    the tangential speed of the wheel, and r is the radius.

    ------------------

    A word about Force and acceleration:

    The Newtonian gravitational force acting on a mass m is:
    F = GMm/R² where:
    G is the gravitational constant,
    M is the mass of Earth
    R is the distance from the mass m to the centre of the Earth.

    The gravitational acceleration of a mass m is:
    g = F/m = GM/R²
    note that the gravitational acceleration is independent
    of the mass. (Galileo and the Leaning Tower of Pisa, remember?)

    According to Newton, g is the acceleration of an object
    in free fall, and the acceleration is downwards.

    According to GR, g = GM/R² is the proper acceleration of a body
    when the body is stationary on the ground. It is acting upwards.
    (Equivalence principle.)

    Note that an accelerometer on the ground shows that the acceleration
    is upwards, and an accelerometer i free fall shows no acceleration.
    An accelerometer measures proper acceleration, and proves
    the equivalence principle.

    But you shouldn't bother with relativity.
    Learn Newtonian physics first!

    -------------------------

    Say whatever you want about this, but don't try to
    paraphrase me. Quote me literally, or not at all!

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Fri Nov 3 07:27:31 2023
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 15:12:36 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 01.11.2023 22:49, skrev Lou:

    Lift a bicycle wheel up off the ground. Spin it with your free
    hand.
    Then touch that hand to the freely spinning wheel. According
    to Paul you should feel no tangental force act on your hand.
    Lou, I am responding to your nonsense only because
    I resent that you claim I have said something I never did.

    Of course there is a tangential force on your hand when
    you touch the wheel. It's called friction.

    The heat that's burning your hand comes from the rotational
    energy stored in the spinning wheel. The wheel will slow down.
    Because he says there is no tangental force in a spinning
    mass.
    There is no tangential force acting on the rubber in
    the wheel when you don't touch it. And the tangential force
    that is acting on the rubber when you touch it is in
    the opposite direction of the velocity, and in the opposite
    direction of the force that is acting on your hand.

    Newton's third law.

    The only force that is acting on the rubber when you don't touch
    the wheel is the centripetal force mediated through the spokes,
    giving the rubber the centripetal acceleration v²/r, where v is
    the tangential speed of the wheel, and r is the radius.

    ------------------

    A word about Force and acceleration:

    The Newtonian gravitational force acting on a mass m is:
    F = GMm/R² where:
    G is the gravitational constant,
    M is the mass of Earth
    R is the distance from the mass m to the centre of the Earth.

    The gravitational acceleration of a mass m is:
    g = F/m = GM/R²
    note that the gravitational acceleration is independent
    of the mass. (Galileo and the Leaning Tower of Pisa, remember?)

    But your idiot guru has refuted these common sense prejudices.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Volney on Fri Nov 3 09:24:45 2023
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity.
    And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in
    the ECI frame.
    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no >> force on them whatsoever, from any source.


    This is an answer that is a ‘have it two ways’ answer only a relativist
    would have the nerve to make: “There’s a force of gravity in free fall when calculating for the (imaginary) “time dilation” effects using GR .
    No, there is no force! The GR effects are inversely proportional to r,
    not r^2,

    Exactly. So too are the effects of gravity in a classical model inversely proportional to r. Not r^2
    That’s how a classical model also successfully predicts tick rates of caesium atoms at different altitudes.

    so GMm/r doesn't even have dimensionality of force, while
    GMm/r^2 does. You seem to think everything is a force, including the tangential velocity of a launched rocket. Which is, obviously, a
    velocity, not a force.
    But no force of gravity in free fall for a classical model.”
    A free falling object doesn't experience any force.
    And this is no double standard, since GMm/r is not even a force, while GMm/r^2 is.

    Pure nonsense. Those are arbritrary formulas. Not forces. Made up
    to try to model the force of gravity. And r....models the force of gravity
    on tick rates of atoms at different altitudes for both SR and classical.
    Not r^2.

    You probably don’t even realise that your claims are contradictory.
    Since GMm/r isn't even a force, no contradiction.

    Completely ignoring the fact Einstein used r to succesfully model the force
    of gravity on various things in GR.

    Anyways If there was no force of gravity acting on them, there would be no free fall. That’s why they are falling. The force of gravity is pushing them.
    In free fall, there is no effect of gravity, pretty much by definition. That's why astronauts float around the space station (orbits are freefall).

    Besides, if there were a force, it would go as GM/r^2, which doesn't
    match GR's inverse r relationship.

    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of gravity at different altitudes for a classical model have to be calculated by incorrectly using r^2
    That is not incorrect, that's just plain Newtonian physics!
    to make sure the prediction is false.
    Newton wanted to help prove relativity?
    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at different alttudes using just r.
    Once again, it is not even a force!
    You also ignores the fact that you were previously unable to supply
    any calculation to refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow
    of earth at different altitudes falls off with r. Not r^2.
    First, the shadow is irrelevant for this discussion. Second, the shadow
    area is not proportional to either 1/r nor 1/r^2. At large distances,
    where the sine of the angle of the edge of the shadowing object can be approximated as 1 (meaning a very small angle) it is approximately proportional to 1/r^2. For close distances once cannot make that
    assumption, the function is more complex, involving the angle of the
    center of the object-observer-edge of the object. This is not
    proportional to 1/r (or 1/r^2).
    I provided you with all the data and calculations. You were unable to refute it.
    So you didn’t answer and pretended that by not supplying any calculations
    to back up your false claims about r^2 you could avoid having to admit you failed.
    I'm not about to look up the near distance function for you. For large distances it is close to 1/r^2 as the source is pointlike (subtended
    angle almost 0).

    In other words...you know I’m right. So you don’t try to prove I’m wrong.

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the same false fact free claim again.
    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the
    effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.

    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Tom Roberts on Fri Nov 3 09:15:36 2023
    OOn Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:47:40 UTC, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/2/23 6:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of
    gravity at different altitudes for a classical model have to be
    calculated by incorrectly using r^2 to make sure the prediction is
    false.
    No. One must use 1/r^2 to model the gravitational force at different altitudes (values of r) to make sure THE MODEL AGREES WITH MEASUREMENTS.

    But the measurements of gravitational time dilation at different
    altitudes is consistent with 1/r.
    Not r^2
    Volney can confirm this.

    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at
    different alttudes using just r.
    More nonsense -- GR has no "gravitational force". In the Newtonian limit
    of GR, there is a gravitational force that goes as 1/r^2 (as in
    Newtonian gravitation).


    Not what I hear. GR uses r, gravitational potential, to model
    the so called ‘time dilation’ effects of gravity on in tick rates of
    atomic clocks at different altitudes.

    Your fundamental problem is that you just do not know what "force"
    means. Ditto for just about every technical word you use. You REALLY
    need to learn basic physics before attempting to write about it.

    Your fundamental problem is you don’t understand what force and gravity
    are.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Fri Nov 3 09:28:21 2023
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 14:12:36 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 01.11.2023 22:49, skrev Lou:

    Lift a bicycle wheel up off the ground. Spin it with your free
    hand.
    Then touch that hand to the freely spinning wheel. According
    to Paul you should feel no tangental force act on your hand.
    Lou, I am responding to your nonsense only because
    I resent that you claim I have said something I never did.

    Of course there is a tangential force on your hand when
    you touch the wheel. It's called friction.

    The heat that's burning your hand comes from the rotational
    energy stored in the spinning wheel. The wheel will slow down.

    The heat burning my hand? You forgot. The tangental force
    in the rotating wheel knocked my hand off in a tangental direction
    away from the wheel before it got a chance to burn.

    Because he says there is no tangental force in a spinning
    mass.
    There is no tangential force acting on the rubber in
    the wheel when you don't touch it. And the tangential force
    that is acting on the rubber when you touch it is in
    the opposite direction of the velocity, and in the opposite
    direction of the force that is acting on your hand.

    Newton's third law.

    The only force that is acting on the rubber when you don't touch
    the wheel is the centripetal force mediated through the spokes,
    giving the rubber the centripetal acceleration v²/r, where v is
    the tangential speed of the wheel, and r is the radius.

    ------------------

    A word about Force and acceleration:

    The Newtonian gravitational force acting on a mass m is:
    F = GMm/R² where:
    G is the gravitational constant,
    M is the mass of Earth
    R is the distance from the mass m to the centre of the Earth.

    The gravitational acceleration of a mass m is:
    g = F/m = GM/R²
    note that the gravitational acceleration is independent
    of the mass. (Galileo and the Leaning Tower of Pisa, remember?)

    According to Newton, g is the acceleration of an object
    in free fall, and the acceleration is downwards.

    According to GR, g = GM/R² is the proper acceleration of a body
    when the body is stationary on the ground. It is acting upwards. (Equivalence principle.)

    Note that an accelerometer on the ground shows that the acceleration
    is upwards, and an accelerometer i free fall shows no acceleration.
    An accelerometer measures proper acceleration, and proves
    the equivalence principle.

    But you shouldn't bother with relativity.
    Learn Newtonian physics first!

    -------------------------

    Say whatever you want about this, but don't try to
    paraphrase me. Quote me literally, or not at all!

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Fri Nov 3 13:09:06 2023
    On 11/3/2023 12:15 PM, Lou wrote:
    OOn Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:47:40 UTC, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/2/23 6:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of
    gravity at different altitudes for a classical model have to be
    calculated by incorrectly using r^2 to make sure the prediction is
    false.
    No. One must use 1/r^2 to model the gravitational force at different
    altitudes (values of r) to make sure THE MODEL AGREES WITH MEASUREMENTS.

    But the measurements of gravitational time dilation at different
    altitudes is consistent with 1/r.
    Not r^2
    Volney can confirm this.

    That is the potential, not the Newtonian force.
    The Newtonian force is approximated as GMm/r^2. Time dilation does NOT
    vary with the Newtonian force!


    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at
    different alttudes using just r.
    More nonsense -- GR has no "gravitational force". In the Newtonian limit
    of GR, there is a gravitational force that goes as 1/r^2 (as in
    Newtonian gravitation).


    Not what I hear. GR uses r, gravitational potential, to model
    the so called ‘time dilation’ effects of gravity on in tick rates of atomic clocks at different altitudes.

    Which is NOT gravitational force! Again Newtonian gravitational force is approximated as GMm/r^2, not 1/r.

    Your fundamental problem is that you just do not know what "force"
    means. Ditto for just about every technical word you use. You REALLY
    need to learn basic physics before attempting to write about it.

    Your fundamental problem is you don’t understand what force and gravity are.

    No, it is YOU who doesn't understand force. You keep insisting
    gravitational potential (1/r) is force (1/r^2). Not even the units are
    correct for that (so automatically wrong).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Fri Nov 3 13:33:31 2023
    On 11/3/2023 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity.
    And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in
    the ECI frame.
    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no >>>> force on them whatsoever, from any source.


    This is an answer that is a ‘have it two ways’ answer only a relativist >>> would have the nerve to make: “There’s a force of gravity in free fall >>> when calculating for the (imaginary) “time dilation” effects using GR . >> No, there is no force! The GR effects are inversely proportional to r,
    not r^2,

    Exactly. So too are the effects of gravity in a classical model inversely proportional to r. Not r^2

    Once again, Newtonian gravity is GMm/r^2. NOT /r. Classical physics has
    time the same everywhere, no such thing as time dilation, so no time
    dilation caused by any potential GMm/r. You are grasping at straws.

    That’s how a classical model also successfully predicts tick rates of caesium atoms at different altitudes.

    WHAT "classical model"? You can't even get the units correct!

    so GMm/r doesn't even have dimensionality of force, while
    GMm/r^2 does. You seem to think everything is a force, including the
    tangential velocity of a launched rocket. Which is, obviously, a
    velocity, not a force.
    But no force of gravity in free fall for a classical model.”
    A free falling object doesn't experience any force.
    And this is no double standard, since GMm/r is not even a force, while
    GMm/r^2 is.

    Pure nonsense. Those are arbritrary formulas. Not forces. Made up
    to try to model the force of gravity.

    Are you saying that Newton just made up his GMm/r^2?

    And r....models the force of gravity
    on tick rates of atoms at different altitudes for both SR and classical.
    Not r^2.

    Classical physics doesn't even have time dilation! What classical
    formula can model something it doesn't even have?

    You probably don’t even realise that your claims are contradictory.

    Since GMm/r isn't even a force, no contradiction.

    Completely ignoring the fact Einstein used r to succesfully model the force of gravity on various things in GR.

    No, he did not.

    I provided you with all the data and calculations. You were unable to refute it.
    So you didn’t answer and pretended that by not supplying any calculations >>> to back up your false claims about r^2 you could avoid having to admit you >>> failed.

    I'm not about to look up the near distance function for you. For large
    distances it is close to 1/r^2 as the source is pointlike (subtended
    angle almost 0).

    In other words...you know I’m right. So you don’t try to prove I’m wrong.

    Nope. Again, first the shadow is irrelevant to the discussion. Second,
    it is up to YOU to prove your claim (with a derived formula or reference
    to one) that shadows go as 1/r.

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven
    wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the
    same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the
    effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.

    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.

    Why would I answer since it up to YOU to prove your claim? In addition,
    once again, it's irrelevant.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 4 14:11:24 2023
    Den 03.11.2023 15:14, skrev Paul B. Andersen:
    ------------------

    A word about Force and acceleration:

    The Newtonian gravitational force acting on a mass m is:
      F = GMm/R² where:
    G is the gravitational constant,
    M is the mass of Earth
    R is the distance from the mass m to the centre of the Earth.

    The gravitational acceleration of a mass m is:
      g = F/m = GM/R²
    note that the gravitational acceleration is independent
    of the mass. (Galileo and the Leaning Tower of Pisa, remember?)

    A second word about force and acceleration:

    I have said that according to Newton it is the gravitational
    acceleration g that make you go in a circle, but this is not
    quite correct, and I would like to correct it.

    According to Newton, g is the acceleration of an object
    in free fall, and the acceleration is downwards.

    This means that according to Newton, the centripetal
    acceleration of a mass m on the ground, is NOT GM/R²,
    it is a = ω²⋅r where:
    ω is the angular velocity of the Earth ω = 2π/sidereal_day
    r is the perpendicular distance from the mass to the Earth's axis,
    r ≈ R⋅cos(latitude) where R is Earth's radius.
    --------------------

    The rest is about the consequence of this force.

    Let the x-axis be in the equatorial plane, at longitude 0⁰
    and let the z-axis be along Earth's spin axis:

    The force acted on a mass m at the 0⁰ meridian is:

    Let θ be the latitude.

    The force due to the acceleration:
    F2x ≈ -m⋅ω²⋅R⋅cos(θ)
    F2z = 0

    The gravitational force:
    F1x ≈ -m⋅(GM/R²)⋅cos(θ)
    F1z ≈ -m⋅(GM/R²)⋅sin(θ)

    The resulting force is then:
    Fx ≈ -m⋅(GM/R²-ω²⋅R)⋅cos(θ)
    Fz ≈ -m⋅(GM/R²)⋅sin(θ)

    Note that the direction of this force
    defines the shape of the Earth, because:

    The force acting on a mass at the surface of the Earth
    must be perpendicular to the surface. (Think water!)

    ∠F = arctan[(-(GM/R²)⋅sin(θ))/(-(GM/R²-ω²⋅R)⋅cos(θ))]

    Note that if ω = 0, ∠F = θ + π,
    the force points to the centre of the Earth.

    But if ω = 2π/sidereal_day, ∠F = θ+Δϕ + π,
    the force points below the centre of the Earth.

    The consequence is that the Earth is a bit 'flattened'.


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Volney on Sun Nov 5 02:16:55 2023
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 17:33:37 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/3/2023 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity.
    And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in
    the ECI frame.
    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no >>>> force on them whatsoever, from any source.


    This is an answer that is a ‘have it two ways’ answer only a relativist
    would have the nerve to make: “There’s a force of gravity in free fall
    when calculating for the (imaginary) “time dilation” effects using GR .
    No, there is no force! The GR effects are inversely proportional to r,
    not r^2,

    Exactly. So too are the effects of gravity in a classical model inversely proportional to r. Not r^2
    Once again, Newtonian gravity is GMm/r^2. NOT /r. Classical physics has
    time the same everywhere, no such thing as time dilation, so no time dilation caused by any potential GMm/r. You are grasping at straws.
    That’s how a classical model also successfully predicts tick rates of caesium atoms at different altitudes.
    WHAT "classical model"? You can't even get the units correct!

    so GMm/r doesn't even have dimensionality of force, while
    GMm/r^2 does. You seem to think everything is a force, including the
    tangential velocity of a launched rocket. Which is, obviously, a
    velocity, not a force.
    But no force of gravity in free fall for a classical model.”
    A free falling object doesn't experience any force.
    And this is no double standard, since GMm/r is not even a force, while
    GMm/r^2 is.

    Pure nonsense. Those are arbritrary formulas. Not forces. Made up
    to try to model the force of gravity.
    Are you saying that Newton just made up his GMm/r^2?
    And r....models the force of gravity
    on tick rates of atoms at different altitudes for both SR and classical. Not r^2.
    Classical physics doesn't even have time dilation! What classical
    formula can model something it doesn't even have?

    You probably don’t even realise that your claims are contradictory.

    Since GMm/r isn't even a force, no contradiction.

    Completely ignoring the fact Einstein used r to succesfully model the force
    of gravity on various things in GR.
    No, he did not.

    I provided you with all the data and calculations. You were unable to refute it.
    So you didn’t answer and pretended that by not supplying any calculations
    to back up your false claims about r^2 you could avoid having to admit you
    failed.

    I'm not about to look up the near distance function for you. For large
    distances it is close to 1/r^2 as the source is pointlike (subtended
    angle almost 0).

    In other words...you know I’m right. So you don’t try to prove I’m wrong.
    Nope. Again, first the shadow is irrelevant to the discussion. Second,
    it is up to YOU to prove your claim (with a derived formula or reference
    to one) that shadows go as 1/r.

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven >>> wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the >>> same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the
    effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.


    And notice for a classical model area of gravity shadow/altitude is how the force of gravity
    is calculated. And it is inversely proportional.
    Not some BS relativists fantasy of r^2 .
    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick
    rates using inverse proportional.
    Relativists try to con everyone by pretending gravitational potential
    has nothing to do with gravity!!
    Ignoring the fact that to calculate “time dilation” all GR reference says it is *gravity* which slows down or speeds up the imaginary photons which
    leads to the imaginary “time dilation”
    Hypocrisy supreme from relativists. Saying gravity causes time dilation.
    And then in the same breath saying it doesn’t💩.


    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.
    Why would I answer since it up to YOU to prove your claim? In addition,
    once again, it's irrelevant.

    I already have proved my claim. If one measures the angle subtended by the earth
    to an observer at R, 2R , 3R etc....The area of the shadow falls off with r
    Not r ^2 as you falsely claim
    You are so dishonest that as usual for a relativist you make claims about a classical model that you know are patently false. Here below are percentages based on angle subtended by earth to observer at various radius distances
    for an observer. Notice the relationship is...Inverse proportional.
    r=100%
    2r=33% 1/2
    3r =21% 1/3
    4r=16% 1/4
    5r=13% 1/5

    Notice that the above classical model almost exactly predicts values for observed tick rates /altitude.( taken from wiki Graph of observed GPS ,gravity probe A and B)
    r 0
    2r 340 1/2
    3r 460 2/3
    4r 520 3/4
    5r 560 4/5

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Sun Nov 5 11:05:12 2023
    On 11/5/2023 5:16 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 17:33:37 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/3/2023 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven >>>>> wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the >>>>> same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the
    effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.


    And notice for a classical model area of gravity shadow/altitude is how the force of gravity
    is calculated. And it is inversely proportional.
    Not some BS relativists fantasy of r^2 .

    Newton was a "relativist"? Remember, F=GMm/r^2 is from Newton.

    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick
    rates using inverse proportional.

    That is the effect of the POTENTIAL, not a force!

    Relativists try to con everyone by pretending gravitational potential
    has nothing to do with gravity!!

    No, it is not a force. GMm/r^2 is a force (Newton model).

    Ignoring the fact that to calculate “time dilation” all GR reference says it is *gravity* which slows down or speeds up the imaginary photons which leads to the imaginary “time dilation”

    Photons always travel at c.

    Hypocrisy supreme from relativists. Saying gravity causes time dilation.
    And then in the same breath saying it doesn’t💩.

    Gravitational FORCE does not cause time dilation. Time dilation is not proportional to the FORCE (1/r^2).


    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.
    Why would I answer since it up to YOU to prove your claim? In addition,
    once again, it's irrelevant.

    I already have proved my claim.

    Assertions are not proofs.

    If one measures the angle subtended by the earth
    to an observer at R, 2R , 3R etc....The area of the shadow falls off with r

    Assertion. Where is the formula which shows how the shadow falls off
    with distance? You have not provided it, so you haven't proven your claim.

    Not r ^2 as you falsely claim

    R^2 is NEWTON's claim!

    You are so dishonest that as usual for a relativist you make claims about a classical model that you know are patently false. Here below are percentages based on angle subtended by earth to observer at various radius distances
    for an observer. Notice the relationship is...Inverse proportional.
    r=100%
    2r=33% 1/2
    3r =21% 1/3
    4r=16% 1/4
    5r=13% 1/5

    Those numbers are not inversely proportional.
    WHERE IS YOUR FORMULA?

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to Volney on Sun Nov 5 09:28:02 2023
    On Sunday, 5 November 2023 at 17:05:18 UTC+1, Volney wrote:
    On 11/5/2023 5:16 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 17:33:37 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/3/2023 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven
    wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the
    same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the >>>> effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.


    And notice for a classical model area of gravity shadow/altitude is how the force of gravity
    is calculated. And it is inversely proportional.
    Not some BS relativists fantasy of r^2 .
    Newton was a "relativist"? Remember, F=GMm/r^2 is from Newton.
    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick rates using inverse proportional.
    That is the effect of the POTENTIAL, not a force!
    Relativists try to con everyone by pretending gravitational potential
    has nothing to do with gravity!!
    No, it is not a force. GMm/r^2 is a force (Newton model).
    Ignoring the fact that to calculate “time dilation” all GR reference says
    it is *gravity* which slows down or speeds up the imaginary photons which leads to the imaginary “time dilation”
    Photons always travel at c.

    Even your idiot guru was unable to stick to this nonsense
    for long and his GR shit had to withdrawn.


    Gravitational FORCE does not cause time dilation. Time dilation is not proportional to the FORCE (1/r^2).

    There is no such thing as gravitational force, stupid Mike,
    your idiot guru has refuted this common sense prejudice.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Volney on Sun Nov 5 10:19:48 2023
    On Sunday, 5 November 2023 at 16:05:18 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/5/2023 5:16 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 17:33:37 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/3/2023 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven
    wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the
    same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the >>>> effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.


    And notice for a classical model area of gravity shadow/altitude is how the force of gravity
    is calculated. And it is inversely proportional.
    Not some BS relativists fantasy of r^2 .
    Newton was a "relativist"? Remember, F=GMm/r^2 is from Newton.
    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick rates using inverse proportional.
    That is the effect of the POTENTIAL, not a force!

    m/s^2…is acceleration not force.
    Like I said. You relativists call the force of gravity...potential.
    Same thing as gravity in a classical model. Just a different name.
    And r works for both classical and GR. So you can’t pretend
    it’s OK for GR to use r to model gravitational effects on tick
    rates of caesium atoms. And then try to con everyone and say
    it’s not Ok for a classical model to use r to model gravitational effects
    on tick rates of caesium atoms.


    Relativists try to con everyone by pretending gravitational potential
    has nothing to do with gravity!!
    No, it is not a force. GMm/r^2 is a force (Newton model).
    Ignoring the fact that to calculate “time dilation” all GR reference says
    it is *gravity* which slows down or speeds up the imaginary photons which leads to the imaginary “time dilation”
    Photons always travel at c.

    Photons are a fantasy dreamt up by Einstein but
    never actually observed. Light is a wave only. And it travels
    at c only in the source frame. As all experiments have confirmed.

    Hypocrisy supreme from relativists. Saying gravity causes time dilation. And then in the same breath saying it doesn’t💩.
    Gravitational FORCE does not cause time dilation. Time dilation is not proportional to the FORCE (1/r^2).


    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.
    Why would I answer since it up to YOU to prove your claim? In addition, >> once again, it's irrelevant.

    I already have proved my claim.
    Assertions are not proofs.

    A theory is never proven . It must be disproven.
    And all the ‘disproof’ you have supplied to date is...hot air.

    If one measures the angle subtended by the earth
    to an observer at R, 2R , 3R etc....The area of the shadow falls off with r
    Assertion. Where is the formula which shows how the shadow falls off
    with distance? You have not provided it, so you haven't proven your claim.
    Not r ^2 as you falsely claim
    R^2 is NEWTON's claim!
    You are so dishonest that as usual for a relativist you make claims about a
    classical model that you know are patently false. Here below are percentages
    based on angle subtended by earth to observer at various radius distances for an observer. Notice the relationship is...Inverse proportional.
    r=100%
    2r=33% 1/2
    3r =21% 1/3
    4r=16% 1/4
    5r=13% 1/5
    Those numbers are not inversely proportional.

    Yes they are. Because r actually is 66% as explained below. And if it halves to 33% at 2r, 1/3 at 3r, 1/4 at 4r etc. Then it’s inversely proportional

    For starters notice in list above that GR starts at zero. A sequence starting at zero also cannot be inversely proportional.
    I put 100% (area) to show dummies the zeropoint of 180 degrees of the celestial
    sphere subtended in sky. But that’s not what you see at r.
    You can’t measure r for an observer at earths surface.
    But the closest above earths surface I can measured is an
    altitude of 0.1r (637 kilometers.)
    Which is 66%
    Not bad considering the error margins for GR predictions, as Hafael Keating show us, is a whopping 30% error !! https://web.archive.org/web/20170331121014/http://www.personal.psu.edu/rq9/HOW/Atomic_Clocks_Predictions.pdf


    WHERE IS YOUR FORMULA?


    You need a formula to measure a subtended angle?😂

    You don’t know the basics of the ‘celestial sphere’? https://science.nasa.gov/learn/basics-of-space-flight/chapter2-2/#:~:text=A%20useful%20construct%20for%20describing,with%20those%20of%20the%20earth.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 5 22:38:46 2023
    Den 05.11.2023 11:16, skrev Lou:

    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick
    rates using inverse proportional.

    According to GR, gravitation doesn't affect the tick rate of a clock.
    The clock always run at its proper rate.
    But an observer in a gravitational field, say on the Earth,
    will observe that a clock higher up seems to run faster
    than his own clock, because he can observe the clock in his
    telescope, and see that it advances faster than his own clock.
    And this is no illusion.

    Consider the following scenario:

    On the North pole we have a clock, a sender transmitting
    a radio signal with frequency f₀, and a radio receiver
    with a frequency counter.

    Hoovering above the North pole at altitude h we have
    a spaceship with a rocket engine. It has equal instrumentation
    as on the ground. The two clocks are equal, and the transmitted
    frequencies are both f₀.

    According to GR, what are the consequences of the gravitation?

    #1:
    A person sitting on a chair at the ground will feel that the chair
    exerts a force on him, F₁ = m₁⋅GM/R² where m₁ is his mass, G is
    the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth and R is
    the radius of the Earth. This force will give him an upwards
    proper acceleration g₁ = GM/R²

    #2:
    To stay at the altitude h, the rocket engine must exert a force
    on the spaceship, F₂ = m₂⋅GM/(R+h)² where m₂ is the mass of the spaceship. This force will give the spaceship an upwards proper
    acceleration g₂ = GM/(R+h)².

    #3:
    The observer on the ground will receive the frequency f₁ from
    the spaceship, where:

    f₁ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/R - 1/(R+h)))⋅f₀

    Since f₁ > f₀ the observer on the ground will say that
    the clock in the spaceship appears to 'tick faster' than his own clock.

    #4:
    The observer in the spaceship will receive the frequency f₂ from
    the ground, where:

    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    Since f₂ < f₀ the observer in the spaceship will say that
    the clock on the ground appears to 'tick slower' than his own clock.

    -----------------

    Let's put in numbers.

    f₀ = 1GHz, h = 20309 km (GPS height)

    f₁ = 1000000000.52867 Hz

    f₂ = 999999999.47133 Hz

    The ground clock would measure a solar day to be 86400 seconds,
    while the clock in the spaceship would measure a solar day
    to be 86400.0000456771 seconds.


    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Sun Nov 5 14:55:48 2023
    On Sunday, 5 November 2023 at 22:37:17 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 05.11.2023 11:16, skrev Lou:

    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick rates using inverse proportional.
    According to GR, gravitation doesn't affect the tick rate of a clock.
    The clock always run at its proper rate.

    And thus, GPS clocks running at 9 192 631 774 instead of
    9 192 631 770 - are falsifying your Shit.

    But an observer in a gravitational field, say on the Earth,
    will observe that a clock higher up seems to run faster
    than his own clock, because he can observe the clock in his
    telescope, and see that it advances faster than his own clock.
    And this is no illusion.

    Oh, yes, it is. We have GPS and can say for sure.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Mon Nov 6 02:58:54 2023
    On Sunday, 5 November 2023 at 21:37:17 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 05.11.2023 11:16, skrev Lou:

    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick rates using inverse proportional.
    According to GR, gravitation doesn't affect the tick rate of a clock.
    The clock always run at its proper rate.
    But an observer in a gravitational field, say on the Earth,
    will observe that a clock higher up seems to run faster
    than his own clock, because he can observe the clock in his
    telescope, and see that it advances faster than his own clock.
    And this is no illusion.

    Consider the following scenario:

    On the North pole we have a clock, a sender transmitting
    a radio signal with frequency f₀, and a radio receiver
    with a frequency counter.

    Hoovering above the North pole at altitude h we have
    a spaceship with a rocket engine. It has equal instrumentation
    as on the ground. The two clocks are equal, and the transmitted
    frequencies are both f₀.

    According to GR, what are the consequences of the gravitation?

    #1:
    A person sitting on a chair at the ground will feel that the chair
    exerts a force on him, F₁ = m₁⋅GM/R² where m₁ is his mass, G is
    the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth and R is
    the radius of the Earth. This force will give him an upwards
    proper acceleration g₁ = GM/R²

    #2:
    To stay at the altitude h, the rocket engine must exert a force
    on the spaceship, F₂ = m₂⋅GM/(R+h)² where m₂ is the mass of the spaceship. This force will give the spaceship an upwards proper
    acceleration g₂ = GM/(R+h)².

    #3:
    The observer on the ground will receive the frequency f₁ from
    the spaceship, where:

    f₁ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/R - 1/(R+h)))⋅f₀

    Since f₁ > f₀ the observer on the ground will say that
    the clock in the spaceship appears to 'tick faster' than his own clock.

    #4:
    The observer in the spaceship will receive the frequency f₂ from
    the ground, where:

    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    Since f₂ < f₀ the observer in the spaceship will say that
    the clock on the ground appears to 'tick slower' than his own clock.

    -----------------

    Let's put in numbers.

    f₀ = 1GHz, h = 20309 km (GPS height)

    f₁ = 1000000000.52867 Hz

    f₂ = 999999999.47133 Hz

    The ground clock would measure a solar day to be 86400 seconds,
    while the clock in the spaceship would measure a solar day
    to be 86400.0000456771 seconds.


    You are the expert on GR. I’m just trying to show how the ‘apparent’ change in tick rates can be explained classically as *actual* real tick rate changes due to different strengths of gravity at different altitudes on
    atoms using r, not r^2.
    (GR also seems to use r, as per #3 below)

    It seems #1 and #2 on your above list are concerned with how
    much energy it takes to hold the rocket up at a certain altitude so that’s
    a seperate issue I believe. Although I remind you below that the reason
    why the rocket needs to exert a force on the rocket is because of
    the gravitional pull of earth below it.
    However your #3 seems to be directly concerned with why the tick rates
    change with altitude under GR. Or appear to change.
    It seems that formula 3 doesn’t use r^2. But rather r.
    Isnt that the case?
    If so then it doesnt matter why the grounds tick rate appears slower to
    the spaceship observer, but rather.....HOW you calculate this apparent
    slowing down of the tick rate.
    And so ultimately it seems you still say GRAVITY is the reason for the apparent
    slowing up of the tick rate for the spaceship observer. After all if the spaceship and the ground observer were not subject to earths gravity then
    there would be no apparent change in the tick rates between the two.

    And the formula #3 you use is essentially saying the relationship between the different ‘apparent’ tick rates and altitude is based on r. Not r^2.
    So you can’t use r to model the effects of gravity on the frequency of
    your photons going from surface to spaceship and then say a classical
    model *can’t* use r to model the same observation.
    After all both appear the same. The actual classical *real physical” change in tick
    rates looks exactly the same as a relativistic “apparent” change in tick rates.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Tue Nov 7 13:46:31 2023
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 22:28:48 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:


    Get this:
    According to NM and GR _the force on a stationary body in the ECI
    frame is inversely proportional to the square of the distance to
    the centre of the Earth_.

    Learn your Shit, poor idiot. No force according to it.
    Get this.


    And remember, GR's predictions are thoroughly confirmed.

    While in the meantime in the real world, forbidden by
    it "improper" clocks keep measuring t'=t, just like all
    serious clocks always did.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 7 22:30:21 2023
    Den 06.11.2023 11:58, skrev Lou:
    On Sunday, 5 November 2023 at 21:37:17 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 05.11.2023 11:16, skrev Lou:

    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick
    rates using inverse proportional.
    According to GR, gravitation doesn't affect the tick rate of a clock.
    The clock always run at its proper rate.
    But an observer in a gravitational field, say on the Earth,
    will observe that a clock higher up seems to run faster
    than his own clock, because he can observe the clock in his
    telescope, and see that it advances faster than his own clock.
    And this is no illusion.

    Consider the following scenario:

    On the North pole we have a clock, a sender transmitting
    a radio signal with frequency f₀, and a radio receiver
    with a frequency counter.

    Hoovering above the North pole at altitude h we have
    a spaceship with a rocket engine. It has equal instrumentation
    as on the ground. The two clocks are equal, and the transmitted
    frequencies are both f₀.

    According to GR, what are the consequences of the gravitation?

    #1:
    A person sitting on a chair at the ground will feel that the chair
    exerts a force on him, F₁ = m₁⋅GM/R² where m₁ is his mass, G is
    the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth and R is
    the radius of the Earth. This force will give him an upwards
    proper acceleration g₁ = GM/R²

    #2:
    To stay at the altitude h, the rocket engine must exert a force
    on the spaceship, F₂ = m₂⋅GM/(R+h)² where m₂ is the mass of the
    spaceship. This force will give the spaceship an upwards proper
    acceleration g₂ = GM/(R+h)².

    #3:
    The observer on the ground will receive the frequency f₁ from
    the spaceship, where:

    f₁ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/R - 1/(R+h)))⋅f₀

    Since f₁ > f₀ the observer on the ground will say that
    the clock in the spaceship appears to 'tick faster' than his own clock.

    #4:
    The observer in the spaceship will receive the frequency f₂ from
    the ground, where:

    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    Since f₂ < f₀ the observer in the spaceship will say that
    the clock on the ground appears to 'tick slower' than his own clock.

    -----------------

    Let's put in numbers.

    f₀ = 1GHz, h = 20309 km (GPS height)

    f₁ = 1000000000.52867 Hz

    f₂ = 999999999.47133 Hz

    The ground clock would measure a solar day to be 86400 seconds,
    while the clock in the spaceship would measure a solar day
    to be 86400.0000456771 seconds.


    You are the expert on GR. I’m just trying to show how the ‘apparent’ change in tick rates can be explained classically as *actual* real tick rate changes due to different strengths of gravity at different altitudes on
    atoms using r, not r^2.
    (GR also seems to use r, as per #3 below)

    Nonsense.


    It seems #1 and #2 on your above list are concerned with how
    much energy it takes to hold the rocket up at a certain altitude so that’s a seperate issue I believe. Although I remind you below that the reason
    why the rocket needs to exert a force on the rocket is because of
    the gravitional pull of earth below it.

    I never mentioned energy. I only pointed out that the gravitational
    force that acts on objects that are stationary in the non rotating
    Earth centred frame (ECI) is: F = GMm/r²

    Get this:
    According to NM and GR _the force on a stationary body in the ECI
    frame is inversely proportional to the square of the distance to
    the centre of the Earth_.

    Stop making a fool of yourself by claiming otherwise.


    However your #3 seems to be directly concerned with why the tick rates
    change with altitude under GR. Or appear to change.
    It seems that formula 3 doesn’t use r^2. But rather r.
    Isnt that the case?

    No.
    It is meaningless to talk about "tick rate" of a clock
    without having something to compare it with.
    So let me repeat what I showed you above.

    Note:
    The "tick rate" f compared to the clock on the ground,
    means that if the clock emits a frequency 1 Hz, then
    the frequency f will be received at the ground.
    (Gravitational blue shift, Gravitational Doppler shift)


    Below is "rate" the 'tick rate' relative to a clock on the ground.
    "r" is the distance from the centre of the Earth.
    "F/F₀" is the gravitational force on the clock relative to
    the force on a clock at the ground.


    r rate F/Fo
    ---------------------------------
    10R 1.000000000626 0.0100
    9R 1.000000000618 0.0123
    8R 1.000000000608 0.0156
    7R 1.000000000596 0.0204
    6R 1.000000000579 0.0278
    5R 1.000000000556 0.0400
    4R 1.000000000522 0.0625
    3R 1.000000000464 0.1111
    2R 1.000000000348 0.2500
    1R 1.000000000000 1.0000

    R is the radius of the Earth
    GPS r = 4.12R
    Geostationary r = 6.6R
    Moon r = 60R

    In case your newsreader has cluttered up the table,
    you can find it Here:
    https://paulba.no/temp/ClockRate.pdf

    Note that F/Fo is inversely proportional to r².
    At 10R the force is one hundred part of the force on 1R.
    But the rate at 10R is only very slightly higher.
    It is nothing near inversely proportional to the force,
    and it nothing near inversely proportional to r.

    And remember, GR's predictions are thoroughly confirmed.


    If so then it doesnt matter why the grounds tick rate appears slower to
    the spaceship observer, but rather.....HOW you calculate this apparent slowing down of the tick rate.
    And so ultimately it seems you still say GRAVITY is the reason for the apparent
    slowing up of the tick rate for the spaceship observer. After all if the spaceship and the ground observer were not subject to earths gravity then there would be no apparent change in the tick rates between the two.

    Of course gravity is the cause of the gravitational blue shift
    (gravitational clock dilation).

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².

    The gravitational clock dilation ("clock rate") increases
    with r, but it is neither proportional nor inversely proportional
    to either r or r². Why should it be?



    And the formula #3 you use is essentially saying the relationship between the different ‘apparent’ tick rates and altitude is based on r. Not r^2.
    So you can’t use r to model the effects of gravity on the frequency of
    your photons going from surface to spaceship and then say a classical
    model *can’t* use r to model the same observation.
    After all both appear the same. The actual classical *real physical” change in tick
    rates looks exactly the same as a relativistic “apparent” change in tick rates.



    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From mitchrae3323@gmail.com@21:1/5 to Maciej Wozniak on Tue Nov 7 17:18:54 2023
    On Tuesday, November 7, 2023 at 1:46:33 PM UTC-8, Maciej Wozniak wrote:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 22:28:48 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:


    Get this:
    According to NM and GR _the force on a stationary body in the ECI
    frame is inversely proportional to the square of the distance to
    the centre of the Earth_.
    Learn your Shit, poor idiot. No force according to it.
    Weight can go away not gravity force.
    Get this.
    And remember, GR's predictions are thoroughly confirmed.
    What predictions?
    While in the meantime in the real world, forbidden by
    it "improper" clocks keep measuring t'=t, just like all
    serious clocks always did.
    Clocks have time as well as space...

    Mitchell Raemsch

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Wed Nov 8 07:46:04 2023
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 06.11.2023 11:58, skrev Lou:
    On Sunday, 5 November 2023 at 21:37:17 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 05.11.2023 11:16, skrev Lou:

    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick >>> rates using inverse proportional.
    According to GR, gravitation doesn't affect the tick rate of a clock.
    The clock always run at its proper rate.
    But an observer in a gravitational field, say on the Earth,
    will observe that a clock higher up seems to run faster
    than his own clock, because he can observe the clock in his
    telescope, and see that it advances faster than his own clock.
    And this is no illusion.

    Consider the following scenario:

    On the North pole we have a clock, a sender transmitting
    a radio signal with frequency f₀, and a radio receiver
    with a frequency counter.

    Hoovering above the North pole at altitude h we have
    a spaceship with a rocket engine. It has equal instrumentation
    as on the ground. The two clocks are equal, and the transmitted
    frequencies are both f₀.

    According to GR, what are the consequences of the gravitation?

    #1:
    A person sitting on a chair at the ground will feel that the chair
    exerts a force on him, F₁ = m₁⋅GM/R² where m₁ is his mass, G is >> the gravitational constant, M is the mass of the Earth and R is
    the radius of the Earth. This force will give him an upwards
    proper acceleration g₁ = GM/R²

    #2:
    To stay at the altitude h, the rocket engine must exert a force
    on the spaceship, F₂ = m₂⋅GM/(R+h)² where m₂ is the mass of the >> spaceship. This force will give the spaceship an upwards proper
    acceleration g₂ = GM/(R+h)².

    #3:
    The observer on the ground will receive the frequency f₁ from
    the spaceship, where:

    f₁ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/R - 1/(R+h)))⋅f₀

    Since f₁ > f₀ the observer on the ground will say that
    the clock in the spaceship appears to 'tick faster' than his own clock. >>
    #4:
    The observer in the spaceship will receive the frequency f₂ from
    the ground, where:

    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    Since f₂ < f₀ the observer in the spaceship will say that
    the clock on the ground appears to 'tick slower' than his own clock.

    -----------------

    Let's put in numbers.

    f₀ = 1GHz, h = 20309 km (GPS height)

    f₁ = 1000000000.52867 Hz

    f₂ = 999999999.47133 Hz

    The ground clock would measure a solar day to be 86400 seconds,
    while the clock in the spaceship would measure a solar day
    to be 86400.0000456771 seconds.


    You are the expert on GR. I’m just trying to show how the ‘apparent’ change in tick rates can be explained classically as *actual* real tick rate
    changes due to different strengths of gravity at different altitudes on atoms using r, not r^2.
    (GR also seems to use r, as per #3 below)
    Nonsense.

    It seems #1 and #2 on your above list are concerned with how
    much energy it takes to hold the rocket up at a certain altitude so that’s
    a seperate issue I believe. Although I remind you below that the reason why the rocket needs to exert a force on the rocket is because of
    the gravitional pull of earth below it.
    I never mentioned energy.

    In Norway it doesn’t take any energy to send a rocket into space?
    Wow. Can I move to Norway please.

    I only pointed out that the gravitational
    force that acts on objects that are stationary in the non rotating
    Earth centred frame (ECI) is: F = GMm/r²

    Get this:
    According to NM and GR _the force on a stationary body in the ECI
    frame is inversely proportional to the square of the distance to
    the centre of the Earth_.

    Stop making a fool of yourself by claiming otherwise.
    However your #3 seems to be directly concerned with why the tick rates change with altitude under GR. Or appear to change.
    It seems that formula 3 doesn’t use r^2. But rather r.
    Isnt that the case?
    No.
    It is meaningless to talk about "tick rate" of a clock
    without having something to compare it with.
    So let me repeat what I showed you above.

    Note:
    The "tick rate" f compared to the clock on the ground,
    means that if the clock emits a frequency 1 Hz, then
    the frequency f will be received at the ground.
    (Gravitational blue shift, Gravitational Doppler shift)


    Below is "rate" the 'tick rate' relative to a clock on the ground.
    "r" is the distance from the centre of the Earth.
    "F/F₀" is the gravitational force on the clock relative to
    the force on a clock at the ground.


    r rate F/Fo
    ---------------------------------
    10R 1.000000000626 0.0100
    9R 1.000000000618 0.0123
    8R 1.000000000608 0.0156
    7R 1.000000000596 0.0204
    6R 1.000000000579 0.0278
    5R 1.000000000556 0.0400
    4R 1.000000000522 0.0625
    3R 1.000000000464 0.1111
    2R 1.000000000348 0.2500
    1R 1.000000000000 1.0000
    R is the radius of the Earth
    GPS r = 4.12R
    Geostationary r = 6.6R
    Moon r = 60R

    In case your newsreader has cluttered up the table,
    you can find it Here:
    https://paulba.no/temp/ClockRate.pdf

    Note that F/Fo is inversely proportional to r².
    At 10R the force is one hundred part of the force on 1R.
    But the rate at 10R is only very slightly higher.
    It is nothing near inversely proportional to the force,
    and it nothing near inversely proportional to r.

    Yes. Maybe it’s proportional by r in GR. But not for classical.
    Here’s your data. Note that the increase is proportional to r.
    Not r^2.
    If at 2r the increase is 348 then it follows that the progression
    is proportional to gravitational force vs r. (Seeing as GR claims
    to use the 1/r of potential)
    r - - - -
    2r 348 1/2
    3r 464 2/3
    4r 522 3/4
    5r 556 4/5

    However for classical. Its inversely proportional. And still a good match to data.
    It’s not possible to measure r, but at a zeropoint of 1/10 r (approx 637 km) above surface the following classical predictions for the decrease in
    gravity force as area of sky is inversely proportional to the observed increase in tick rates with r.
    r+h=66% 1
    2r= 33% 1/2
    3r = 21% 1/3
    4r= 16% 1/4
    5r= 13% 1/5

    And remember, GR's predictions are thoroughly confirmed.
    If so then it doesnt matter why the grounds tick rate appears slower to the spaceship observer, but rather.....HOW you calculate this apparent slowing down of the tick rate.
    And so ultimately it seems you still say GRAVITY is the reason for the apparent
    slowing up of the tick rate for the spaceship observer. After all if the spaceship and the ground observer were not subject to earths gravity then there would be no apparent change in the tick rates between the two.
    Of course gravity is the cause of the gravitational blue shift (gravitational clock dilation).

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².

    Except for when GR calculates tick rate changes. Then you
    use just r.
    And you even admit this in your formula above:

    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    Where is r^2? It’s just r.


    The gravitational clock dilation ("clock rate") increases
    with r, but it is neither proportional nor inversely proportional
    to either r or r². Why should it be?

    And the formula #3 you use is essentially saying the relationship between the
    different ‘apparent’ tick rates and altitude is based on r. Not r^2. So you can’t use r to model the effects of gravity on the frequency of your photons going from surface to spaceship and then say a classical model *can’t* use r to model the same observation.
    After all both appear the same. The actual classical *real physical” change in tick
    rates looks exactly the same as a relativistic “apparent” change in tick rates.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 8 18:58:27 2023
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².

    Indisputable!

    Except for when GR calculates tick rate changes. Then you
    use just r.

    So stop disputing!

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Wed Nov 8 10:24:52 2023
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 17:56:52 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².
    Indisputable!

    Then why isn’t r^2 in your formula for calculating the effect of gravity
    on caesium clock tick rates?
    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    It’s not surprising the predictions made by GR that *you* cited in your earlier post of increases in tick rates with altitude are *proportional to r*. After all, you used r to calculate them. And then tried to pretend
    you used r^2.

    Except for when GR calculates tick rate changes. Then you
    use just r.
    So stop disputing!

    Finally!
    I’m glad you admit that GR, like classical theory, assumes the force
    of gravity is proportional to r to predict tick rates.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Paul B. Andersen@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 8 22:28:50 2023
    Den 08.11.2023 19:24, skrev Lou:
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 17:56:52 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².

    Indisputable!


    Then why isn’t r^2 in your formula for calculating the effect of gravity
    on caesium clock tick rates?
    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    It’s not surprising the predictions made by GR that *you* cited in your earlier post of increases in tick rates with altitude are *proportional to r*.
    After all, you used r to calculate them. And then tried to pretend
    you used r^2.


    Except for when GR calculates tick rate changes. Then you
    use just r.

    So stop disputing!


    Finally!
    I’m glad you admit that GR, like classical theory, assumes the force
    of gravity is proportional to r to predict tick rates.

    I am beginning to suspect that you are raving mad.

    Enough, now.

    --
    Paul

    https://paulba.no/

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Maciej Wozniak@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Wed Nov 8 13:29:48 2023
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 18:56:52 UTC+1, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².
    Indisputable!

    Except that your idiot guru has refuted this
    common sense prejudice. Learn your Shit,
    poor halfbrain.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Tom Roberts@21:1/5 to Lou on Wed Nov 8 17:09:46 2023
    On 11/8/23 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 17:56:52 UTC, Paul B. Andersen
    wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen
    wrote:
    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².
    Indisputable!

    Well, in weak fields such as near earth.

    This is HIGHLY DISPUTABLE in strong field regions (were "gravitational
    force" simply does not make sense, and r might not make sense, either).

    Then why isn’t r^2 in your formula for calculating the effect of
    gravity on caesium clock tick rates?

    Because clock tick rates don't depend on gravitation at all.

    But in the weak field near earth, when clock tick rates are MEASURED
    from a different location, the value measured depends on the difference
    in GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL between the clock and the measuring
    instrument [#]. In the weak field near earth, gravitational potential is proportional to 1/r (r measured from the center of the earth; this
    neglects minor effects).

    [#] Presuming the measurement is mediated by EM signals,
    and the clock and instrument are at rest in a static field.

    [...] And then tried to pretend you used r^2.

    Nobody ever "pretended" like that, YOU misread. Repeatedly. Because YOU
    do not understand the difference between potential and force.

    I’m glad you admit that GR, like classical theory, assumes the force
    of gravity is proportional to r to predict tick rates.

    No! Nobody ever said that (except you). YOU have repeatedly misread.

    In the weak field near earth, measurements of clock tick rates depend on
    the difference in GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL between clock and measuring instrument; it is proportional to 1/r. Gravitational FORCE is
    proportional to the gradient of the gravitational potential, i.e.
    proportional to 1/r^2.

    You REALLY need to learn basic physics before attempting to write about it.

    Tom Roberts

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Thu Nov 9 00:32:25 2023
    On 11/8/2023 1:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 17:56:52 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen wrote:

    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².
    Indisputable!

    Then why isn’t r^2 in your formula for calculating the effect of gravity
    on caesium clock tick rates?
    f₂ = √(1 + (GM/c²)⋅(1/(R+h)-1/R))⋅f₀

    Because there is no force in that equation, only gravitational potential.

    And it's not "the effect of gravity on caesium clock tick rates" but the measured difference in tick rates for different potentials. As mentioned
    a zillion times before, each clock involved ticks one second per second.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Paul B. Andersen on Thu Nov 9 00:33:27 2023
    On 11/8/2023 4:28 PM, Paul B. Andersen wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 19:24, skrev Lou:

    []

    I am beginning to suspect that you are raving mad.

    "Beginning to suspect"?

    Enough, now.


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Tom Roberts on Thu Nov 9 02:12:41 2023
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 23:09:59 UTC, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/8/23 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 17:56:52 UTC, Paul B. Andersen
    wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen
    wrote:
    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².
    Indisputable!
    Well, in weak fields such as near earth.

    This is HIGHLY DISPUTABLE in strong field regions (were "gravitational force" simply does not make sense, and r might not make sense, either).
    Then why isn’t r^2 in your formula for calculating the effect of
    gravity on caesium clock tick rates?
    Because clock tick rates don't depend on gravitation at all.

    But in the weak field near earth, when clock tick rates are MEASURED
    from a different location, the value measured depends on the difference
    in GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL between the clock and the measuring
    instrument [#]. In the weak field near earth, gravitational potential is proportional to 1/r (r measured from the center of the earth; this
    neglects minor effects).

    [#] Presuming the measurement is mediated by EM signals,
    and the clock and instrument are at rest in a static field.

    [...] And then tried to pretend you used r^2.

    Nobody ever "pretended" like that, YOU misread. Repeatedly. Because YOU
    do not understand the difference between potential and force.
    I’m glad you admit that GR, like classical theory, assumes the force
    of gravity is proportional to r to predict tick rates.
    No! Nobody ever said that (except you). YOU have repeatedly misread.

    In the weak field near earth, measurements of clock tick rates depend on
    the difference in GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL between clock and measuring instrument; it is proportional to 1/r. Gravitational FORCE is
    proportional to the gradient of the gravitational potential, i.e. proportional to 1/r^2.
    You REALLY need to learn basic physics before attempting to write about it. Tom Roberts

    You and the others need to understand that your pretence that
    “gravitational potential” has nothing to do with gravity is self
    delusion on a grand scale.
    If Gravitational potential doesn’t have anything to do with gravity,
    then why does ‘gravity’ appear in the term?
    And if gravity or the force of gravity have nothing to do with
    Gravitational potential and the observed tick rates of atoms at
    different altitudes, then what fundamental force is responsible
    for these observations?
    Wake up Tom. GP is a fluid term. Used by various theorists for
    different reasons.
    Laplace himself considered GP could be used to
    calculate *the force of gravity* And Newton’s take of
    ‘mass generating a scalar field GM/r’ sounds like his “scalar field”
    is just another term for: the force of gravity changing relative to r.

    Anyways regardless of your fantasy that GP has nothing to do with gravity in GR
    the fact remains that a classical model of gravity which has gravitational strength at different altitudes dictated by the area of the earth’s shadow as seen from the observer...is proportional to r. Not r^2. Which means
    that the different real tick rates of clocks at different radius can be accurately
    modelled classically using r.

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  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Thu Nov 9 13:24:30 2023
    On 11/9/2023 5:12 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 23:09:59 UTC, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/8/23 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Wednesday, 8 November 2023 at 17:56:52 UTC, Paul B. Andersen
    wrote:
    Den 08.11.2023 16:46, skrev Lou:
    On Tuesday, 7 November 2023 at 21:28:48 UTC, Paul B. Andersen
    wrote:
    The gravitational force is inversely proportional to r².
    Indisputable!
    Well, in weak fields such as near earth.

    This is HIGHLY DISPUTABLE in strong field regions (were "gravitational
    force" simply does not make sense, and r might not make sense, either).
    Then why isn’t r^2 in your formula for calculating the effect of
    gravity on caesium clock tick rates?
    Because clock tick rates don't depend on gravitation at all.

    But in the weak field near earth, when clock tick rates are MEASURED
    from a different location, the value measured depends on the difference
    in GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL between the clock and the measuring
    instrument [#]. In the weak field near earth, gravitational potential is
    proportional to 1/r (r measured from the center of the earth; this
    neglects minor effects).

    [#] Presuming the measurement is mediated by EM signals,
    and the clock and instrument are at rest in a static field.

    [...] And then tried to pretend you used r^2.

    Nobody ever "pretended" like that, YOU misread. Repeatedly. Because YOU
    do not understand the difference between potential and force.
    I’m glad you admit that GR, like classical theory, assumes the force
    of gravity is proportional to r to predict tick rates.
    No! Nobody ever said that (except you). YOU have repeatedly misread.

    In the weak field near earth, measurements of clock tick rates depend on
    the difference in GRAVITATIONAL POTENTIAL between clock and measuring
    instrument; it is proportional to 1/r. Gravitational FORCE is
    proportional to the gradient of the gravitational potential, i.e.
    proportional to 1/r^2.
    You REALLY need to learn basic physics before attempting to write about it. >> Tom Roberts

    You and the others need to understand that your pretence that “gravitational potential” has nothing to do with gravity is self
    delusion on a grand scale.
    If Gravitational potential doesn’t have anything to do with gravity,
    then why does ‘gravity’ appear in the term?
    And if gravity or the force of gravity have nothing to do with
    Gravitational potential and the observed tick rates of atoms at
    different altitudes, then what fundamental force is responsible
    for these observations?
    Wake up Tom. GP is a fluid term. Used by various theorists for
    different reasons.
    Laplace himself considered GP could be used to
    calculate *the force of gravity* And Newton’s take of
    ‘mass generating a scalar field GM/r’ sounds like his “scalar field” is just another term for: the force of gravity changing relative to r.

    Anyways regardless of your fantasy that GP has nothing to do with gravity in GR
    the fact remains that a classical model of gravity which has gravitational strength at different altitudes dictated by the area of the earth’s shadow as
    seen from the observer...is proportional to r. Not r^2. Which means
    that the different real tick rates of clocks at different radius can be accurately
    modelled classically using r.




    And once again, obviously your claim that anyone claims that
    gravitational potential has nothing to do with gravity, is false. What
    is true is that gravitational potential is not a force, it doesn't even
    have the dimensionality of a force. Therefore, gravitational potential
    doesn't act as a force on anything so it doesn't affect anything as a
    force. The actual force (Newtonian model) varies as 1/r^2, and no force
    varies as 1/r. Period.

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  • From Tom Roberts@21:1/5 to Lou on Thu Nov 9 15:05:00 2023
    On 11/9/23 4:12 AM, Lou wrote:
    You and the others need to understand that your pretence that “gravitational potential” has nothing to do with gravity is self
    delusion on a grand scale.

    Why do you make stuff up like this?? -- there is no such "pretence" -- gravitational potential is clearly and obviously an aspect of gravity.
    But gravitational potential is not gravitational force [#]; as I said
    before, gravitational force is minus the gradient of the gravitational potential. Under suitable conditions, the gravitational potential is proportional to 1/r, and the gravitational force is proportional to
    1/r^2. THESE ARE DIFFERENT.

    [#[ The context here is Newtonian mechanics, not GR.

    Tom Roberts

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  • From Lou@21:1/5 to Tom Roberts on Fri Nov 10 07:10:49 2023
    On Thursday, 9 November 2023 at 21:05:12 UTC, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/9/23 4:12 AM, Lou wrote:
    You and the others need to understand that your pretence that “gravitational potential” has nothing to do with gravity is self delusion on a grand scale.
    Why do you make stuff up like this?? -- there is no such "pretence" -- gravitational potential is clearly and obviously an aspect of gravity.
    But gravitational potential is not gravitational force [#]; as I said before, gravitational force is minus the gradient of the gravitational potential. Under suitable conditions, the gravitational potential is proportional to 1/r, and the gravitational force is proportional to
    1/r^2. THESE ARE DIFFERENT.

    [#[ The context here is Newtonian mechanics, not GR.

    Play word games. But fact is that to model the force of gravity
    at any point in its field for a classical model one uses r. Not r^2.
    (R^2 is acceleration. Obviously you don’t understand what
    ‘meters per second ^2’ means.)
    Einstein realised this and co-opted potential. And Laplace
    Realised this when he said that to model force of gravity
    (Not acceleration) one uses r. And even Newton realised this
    with his scalar field of the force of gravity which also used r.
    And finally...if you weren’t so desperate to ignore the facts...
    You would realise that a classical model of gravity relies
    on the gravity shadow of earth on any observer at r,2r etc.
    And this falls of with r.
    A fact you cannot disprove.
    Stick with relativity. You haven’t the faintest idea of how
    a classical model works.

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  • From Tom Roberts@21:1/5 to Lou on Fri Nov 10 15:34:24 2023
    On 11/10/23 9:10 AM, Lou wrote:
    to model the force of gravity
    at any point in its field for a classical model one uses r. Not r^2.

    This is blatantly wrong. The gravitational force from a spherical
    object, such as a planet, is proportional to 1/r^2 (Newtonian mechanics).

    [... more nonsense]

    Tom Roberts

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  • From Ross Finlayson@21:1/5 to Volney on Sat Nov 11 10:55:26 2023
    On Sunday, November 5, 2023 at 8:05:18 AM UTC-8, Volney wrote:
    On 11/5/2023 5:16 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 17:33:37 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/3/2023 12:24 PM, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven
    wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the
    same false fact free claim again.

    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the >>>> effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.


    And notice for a classical model area of gravity shadow/altitude is how the force of gravity
    is calculated. And it is inversely proportional.
    Not some BS relativists fantasy of r^2 .
    Newton was a "relativist"? Remember, F=GMm/r^2 is from Newton.
    Notice GR itself calculates the effect of gravity on atomic clock tick rates using inverse proportional.
    That is the effect of the POTENTIAL, not a force!
    Relativists try to con everyone by pretending gravitational potential
    has nothing to do with gravity!!
    No, it is not a force. GMm/r^2 is a force (Newton model).
    Ignoring the fact that to calculate “time dilation” all GR reference says
    it is *gravity* which slows down or speeds up the imaginary photons which leads to the imaginary “time dilation”
    Photons always travel at c.
    Hypocrisy supreme from relativists. Saying gravity causes time dilation. And then in the same breath saying it doesn’t💩.
    Gravitational FORCE does not cause time dilation. Time dilation is not proportional to the FORCE (1/r^2).


    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.
    Why would I answer since it up to YOU to prove your claim? In addition, >> once again, it's irrelevant.

    I already have proved my claim.
    Assertions are not proofs.
    If one measures the angle subtended by the earth
    to an observer at R, 2R , 3R etc....The area of the shadow falls off with r
    Assertion. Where is the formula which shows how the shadow falls off
    with distance? You have not provided it, so you haven't proven your claim.
    Not r ^2 as you falsely claim
    R^2 is NEWTON's claim!
    You are so dishonest that as usual for a relativist you make claims about a
    classical model that you know are patently false. Here below are percentages
    based on angle subtended by earth to observer at various radius distances for an observer. Notice the relationship is...Inverse proportional.
    r=100%
    2r=33% 1/2
    3r =21% 1/3
    4r=16% 1/4
    5r=13% 1/5
    Those numbers are not inversely proportional.
    WHERE IS YOUR FORMULA?


    Where's "Bizarro-Newton: all the classical inverse square numbers add up only from being released
    at rest, it results only exactly the same that all impulses are opposite".

    I.e., this "inverse-Newton" or "black-and-white Newton", "negative Newton", is for saying
    "of course there's a theory where all Newton's quantities are the opposite yet they add up
    the same", given classical motion and inertia of rest, and inertia of motion, and moments of motion.

    Then that gets into "no, push gravity and Fatio/LeSage is still too powdered-wig" and then
    for "well there was supergravity coming up in the late 20th', part of supersymmetry" then
    these people "a shadow gravity is the sort of notion that in the model of their flux, gravitinos flux
    even under shadow instead of light how light fluxes, that the graviton and gravitino are opposite
    yet photon and photon neutrino just about same, orders, something like that shadowing gravity,
    in superflux models of vacuum particles", or something like "how about plain antigravity in theory", no,
    what results "sure go back to a usual fall theory of gravity, the universe is a field in it a force, whatever".

    That adds up in the classical to the same as Newton's classical, root mean Newton. "Sure, quantum
    gravity adds up what it is", "how's that?", "doesn't say, ...".

    Then, it's for "Einstein's total super Newton's classical original", then, that here it's under "fall gravity".

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  • From Ross Finlayson@21:1/5 to Lou on Sat Nov 11 10:38:34 2023
    On Friday, November 3, 2023 at 9:24:48 AM UTC-7, Lou wrote:
    On Friday, 3 November 2023 at 04:52:55 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/2/2023 7:37 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 2 November 2023 at 04:15:44 UTC, Volney wrote:
    On 11/1/2023 6:42 PM, Lou wrote:

    But the earth also spins. And that spin is not produced by earths gravity.
    And that spin exerts an additional force on the caesium atoms that is from a tangental
    force caused not by gravity but by the tangental acceleration of the clock in
    the ECI frame.
    Cesium atoms in an atomic clock are in freefall. That means there is no >> force on them whatsoever, from any source.


    This is an answer that is a ‘have it two ways’ answer only a relativist
    would have the nerve to make: “There’s a force of gravity in free fall
    when calculating for the (imaginary) “time dilation” effects using GR .
    No, there is no force! The GR effects are inversely proportional to r,
    not r^2,
    Exactly. So too are the effects of gravity in a classical model inversely proportional to r. Not r^2
    That’s how a classical model also successfully predicts tick rates of caesium atoms at different altitudes.
    so GMm/r doesn't even have dimensionality of force, while
    GMm/r^2 does. You seem to think everything is a force, including the tangential velocity of a launched rocket. Which is, obviously, a
    velocity, not a force.
    But no force of gravity in free fall for a classical model.”
    A free falling object doesn't experience any force.
    And this is no double standard, since GMm/r is not even a force, while GMm/r^2 is.
    Pure nonsense. Those are arbritrary formulas. Not forces. Made up
    to try to model the force of gravity. And r....models the force of gravity on tick rates of atoms at different altitudes for both SR and classical.
    Not r^2.
    You probably don’t even realise that your claims are contradictory.
    Since GMm/r isn't even a force, no contradiction.
    Completely ignoring the fact Einstein used r to succesfully model the force of gravity on various things in GR.
    Anyways If there was no force of gravity acting on them, there would be no
    free fall. That’s why they are falling. The force of gravity is pushing them.
    In free fall, there is no effect of gravity, pretty much by definition. That's why astronauts float around the space station (orbits are freefall).

    Besides, if there were a force, it would go as GM/r^2, which doesn't
    match GR's inverse r relationship.

    Basically what you just said is that the effects of the force of gravity at different altitudes for a classical model have to be calculated by incorrectly using r^2
    That is not incorrect, that's just plain Newtonian physics!
    to make sure the prediction is false.
    Newton wanted to help prove relativity?
    But for GR it’s OK to correctly model the force of gravity at different
    alttudes using just r.
    Once again, it is not even a force!
    You also ignores the fact that you were previously unable to supply
    any calculation to refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow of earth at different altitudes falls off with r. Not r^2.
    First, the shadow is irrelevant for this discussion. Second, the shadow area is not proportional to either 1/r nor 1/r^2. At large distances, where the sine of the angle of the edge of the shadowing object can be approximated as 1 (meaning a very small angle) it is approximately proportional to 1/r^2. For close distances once cannot make that assumption, the function is more complex, involving the angle of the center of the object-observer-edge of the object. This is not
    proportional to 1/r (or 1/r^2).
    I provided you with all the data and calculations. You were unable to refute it.
    So you didn’t answer and pretended that by not supplying any calculations
    to back up your false claims about r^2 you could avoid having to admit you
    failed.
    I'm not about to look up the near distance function for you. For large distances it is close to 1/r^2 as the source is pointlike (subtended
    angle almost 0).
    In other words...you know I’m right. So you don’t try to prove I’m wrong.
    A classic relativist tactic. When a relativist gets their claims proven wrong, they change the subject and come back a few weeks later with the same false fact free claim again.
    The size of a shadow isn't even relevant here! We're discussing the effects of gravitational force and potential, not shadows.
    There you go. Cant refute the fact that the area of the gravity shadow in a classical
    model falls off at r
    Thought you wouldn’t be able to answer.


    It seems you're missing the point that Hafaele-Keating observed the effect as about
    either way around the Earth, as for example early satellites would exhibit, and planned
    the route exactly so as to get a null result as with respect to exactly general relativity.

    It's similar with other bodies in orbit about Earth like communications satellites,
    it's all a constant observatory for differences.

    Then also there's gravitational timekeeping about that the Earth only spins around one
    way at once, about measuring the core of the Earth for the skin of the Earth.

    So, it's not so much to say "GR and SR can never be discontinuous", "so paradox twins, ...",
    but it almost involves actually having "GR and SR can never be discontinuous".

    Then, what results the esoteric and exoteric, is first that according to all classical approximations
    such notions vanish, or classical motion and acoustic doppler, here the point though is that
    indeed Michelson-Morley and famous experimenters, both prepare the data according to
    success, and, that there's an esoteric view "behind validating the science", and another
    "because it's incomplete, or there are the exceptions, or the unexplained which had to
    be given to failure, or the censored".

    I mean, Hafaele and Keating flew around the right way, you know.


    "Higgs' particle: two particles: one standard."


    An array of communications satellites is constantly computing and advising measurement differences
    in timekeeping as both overall a clock and also a measurement of lensing or "local potential minimae",
    whether "distance" and "acceleration" and "linear" or "rotational", orbits.

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  • From Volney@21:1/5 to Lou on Mon Dec 25 03:21:52 2023
    On 11/10/2023 10:10 AM, Lou wrote:
    On Thursday, 9 November 2023 at 21:05:12 UTC, Tom Roberts wrote:
    On 11/9/23 4:12 AM, Lou wrote:
    You and the others need to understand that your pretence that
    “gravitational potential” has nothing to do with gravity is self
    delusion on a grand scale.
    Why do you make stuff up like this?? -- there is no such "pretence" --
    gravitational potential is clearly and obviously an aspect of gravity.
    But gravitational potential is not gravitational force [#]; as I said
    before, gravitational force is minus the gradient of the gravitational
    potential. Under suitable conditions, the gravitational potential is
    proportional to 1/r, and the gravitational force is proportional to
    1/r^2. THESE ARE DIFFERENT.

    [#[ The context here is Newtonian mechanics, not GR.

    Play word games. But fact is that to model the force of gravity
    at any point in its field for a classical model one uses r. Not r^2.
    (R^2 is acceleration. Obviously you don’t understand what
    ‘meters per second ^2’ means.)

    You are back with this garbage again? You must be DESPERATE!

    Yes acceleration goes as 1/r^2. But classical force is mass*acceleration
    so force is proportional to 1/r^2 as well.

    And finally...if you weren’t so desperate to ignore the facts...
    You would realise that a classical model of gravity relies
    on the gravity shadow of earth on any observer at r,2r etc.

    Non sequitur, and incorrect as well.

    And this falls of with r.
    A fact you cannot disprove.

    It's incorrect.

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