• A Hypothesis concerning Bell's Inequality

    From SEKI@21:1/5 to All on Sun Jan 21 07:30:14 2018
    In a Bell test experiment, a source produces a pair of particles, one
    is sent to one location, and the other is sent to another location.
    A measurement of particle spin/polarization is performed at a specific
    angle at each location.

    The following points are facts and assumptions concerning Bell's
    problem presentation.

    (1) In the vacuum space, zero-point oscillations of all wave-number
    vectors with possible spin/polarization directions take place in each
    quantum field.

    (2) In the setting of Bell test experiments, zero-point oscillations
    of other than the specific spin/polarization directions are assumed to
    be suppressed significantly.

    (3) A particle pair production is assumed to be induced by a zero-point oscillation in a similar manner as in the case of stimulated emission
    of a photon.

    Then, the paradox concerning Bell's inequality can be considered to be resolved.

    Am I wrong?

    SEKI

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  • From SEKI@21:1/5 to All on Mon Jan 22 09:12:01 2018
    Supplemental explanation for point (2).

    For example, consider a deflection plate for photons.
    For oscillations of the specific polarization directions, it is
    equivalent to a transparent glass. Conversely, for oscillations of
    other than the specific polarization directions, it is equivalent
    to a opaque glass and is assumed to suppress the oscillations.

    SEKI

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  • From SEKI@21:1/5 to All on Sat Jan 27 07:49:23 2018
    According to my hypothesis, spin/polarization directions of paired particles are to be determined when they are produced, and are to be biased in
    accordance with the experimental setting.
    Considering the nature of a photon produced by induced emission, it is apparent.
    Maybe, it will make more sense for you to forget Bell.


    By the way, I suppose that zero-point oscillations have the key to resolving other types of quantum paradoxes.

    SEKI

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  • From SEKI@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 31 07:32:47 2018
    Consider a photon pair.

    (1) Each of paired photons is created simultaneously at the same point, and travels at the speed of light in a direction opposite to each other.

    (2) No or, at most, negligible interaction is possible between photons.

    (3) No restriction is imposed on superposition of quantum waves of photons, which are bosons.

    Then, is any correlation between paired photons earthly, other than those determined at the point of pair creation?

    Thanks.

    SEKI

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  • From SEKI@21:1/5 to All on Sat Feb 3 07:40:41 2018
    You may think the key is entanglement, which postulates two-particle
    state.

    Consider a photon pair.
    Quantum wave of paired photon system, if actually present, is to swell
    at twice the speed of light, and is to metamorphose instantaneously.
    I cannot believe in such a system.

    On the contrary, each of paired photons is assumed to travel
    independently of each other after pair creation.
    Considering that no or, at most, negligible interaction is possible
    between photons, and that no restriction is imposed on superposition of
    quantum waves of photons, which are bosons, isn't it uncontradictable?

    So, I consider that any correlation between paired photons is determined
    at the point of pair creation.

    Thanks.

    SEKI

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