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A Hypothesis concerning Bell's Inequality
From
SEKI@21:1/5 to
All on Sun Jan 21 07:30:14 2018
In a Bell test experiment, a source produces a pair of particles, one
is sent to one location, and the other is sent to another location.
A measurement of particle spin/polarization is performed at a specific
angle at each location.
The following points are facts and assumptions concerning Bell's
problem presentation.
(1) In the vacuum space, zero-point oscillations of all wave-number
vectors with possible spin/polarization directions take place in each
quantum field.
(2) In the setting of Bell test experiments, zero-point oscillations
of other than the specific spin/polarization directions are assumed to
be suppressed significantly.
(3) A particle pair production is assumed to be induced by a zero-point oscillation in a similar manner as in the case of stimulated emission
of a photon.
Then, the paradox concerning Bell's inequality can be considered to be resolved.
Am I wrong?
SEKI
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From
SEKI@21:1/5 to
All on Mon Jan 22 09:12:01 2018
Supplemental explanation for point (2).
For example, consider a deflection plate for photons.
For oscillations of the specific polarization directions, it is
equivalent to a transparent glass. Conversely, for oscillations of
other than the specific polarization directions, it is equivalent
to a opaque glass and is assumed to suppress the oscillations.
SEKI
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From
SEKI@21:1/5 to
All on Sat Jan 27 07:49:23 2018
According to my hypothesis, spin/polarization directions of paired particles are to be determined when they are produced, and are to be biased in
accordance with the experimental setting.
Considering the nature of a photon produced by induced emission, it is apparent.
Maybe, it will make more sense for you to forget Bell.
By the way, I suppose that zero-point oscillations have the key to resolving other types of quantum paradoxes.
SEKI
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From
SEKI@21:1/5 to
All on Wed Jan 31 07:32:47 2018
Consider a photon pair.
(1) Each of paired photons is created simultaneously at the same point, and travels at the speed of light in a direction opposite to each other.
(2) No or, at most, negligible interaction is possible between photons.
(3) No restriction is imposed on superposition of quantum waves of photons, which are bosons.
Then, is any correlation between paired photons earthly, other than those determined at the point of pair creation?
Thanks.
SEKI
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From
SEKI@21:1/5 to
All on Sat Feb 3 07:40:41 2018
You may think the key is entanglement, which postulates two-particle
state.
Consider a photon pair.
Quantum wave of paired photon system, if actually present, is to swell
at twice the speed of light, and is to metamorphose instantaneously.
I cannot believe in such a system.
On the contrary, each of paired photons is assumed to travel
independently of each other after pair creation.
Considering that no or, at most, negligible interaction is possible
between photons, and that no restriction is imposed on superposition of
quantum waves of photons, which are bosons, isn't it uncontradictable?
So, I consider that any correlation between paired photons is determined
at the point of pair creation.
Thanks.
SEKI
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