• Re: A paradox about Cantor's set theory

    From Mike Terry@21:1/5 to wij on Sat Mar 9 17:30:33 2024
    On 09/03/2024 11:45, wij wrote:
    An example is added about Cantor's set theory in the the section [Paradox Explanation]
    https://sourceforge.net/projects/cscall/files/MisFiles/logic_en.txt/download and thought it may be interested:

    +---------------------+
    | Paradox Explanation |
    +---------------------+
    .....
    .....
    The number of even number and the number of natural number are equal: Ans:
    ℕ=ℕ<0,+1> and ℕ<0,+2> are isomorphic but the "even numnber" in the two sets
    are semantically different (i.e. the 6 in ℕ<0,+2> is 3 in ℕ<0,+1> ). They
    are two different set of arithmetic systems. Thus, it is confusing to say
    that the number of elements of an infinite set and its proper subset are
    equal.


    I agree that the chosen wording above is likely to confuse particulaly non-mathematicians. That's
    why when mathematicians talk about infinite sets, they are careful to /define/ the phrases they use
    to describe them.

    For example, they typically would not say "The number of even number and the number of natural
    number are equal", because that would require them to have previously defined "the number of" for an
    infinite set. More likely they say one of the following:

    (a) There is a 1-1 correspondence between the even numbers and the natural numbers
    [That is hardly "confusing" to anybody, when the correspondence is demonstrated!]

    (b) The set of even numbers and the set of natural numbers "have the same cardinality"
    [Where "have the same cardinality" is defined as there existing a
    1-1 correspondence between the elements of the two sets, i.e. same as (a).]

    (c) The set of even numbers and the set of natural numbers are "the same size"
    [...having /defined/ "the same size" as meaning exactly the same as (a)]

    This approach avoids ever directly referring to the "number" of elements in the set.

    Alternatively, perhaps a concept of "cardinal number" has previously been defined, and it's been
    shown that each set corresponds with a unique cardinal number, such that sets have the same
    associated cardinal number exactly when (a) above applies. Then it would also be OK to say:

    (c) The /cardinality/ of the set of even number equals the /cardinality/ of the
    set of natural numbers.

    Even then I don't think mathematicians would say "The /number/ of even number and the /number/ of
    natural number are equal". That's just unnecessarily imprecise.

    Perhaps the only people who would talk about the "number" of elements in an infinite set are
    non-mathematicians (most of the population!) dabbling in the subject. Particularly journalists
    explaining to the general public, and ignorant cranks trying to demonstrate some particular problem
    with infinite sets (while typically misrepresenting the conventional mathematical standpoint)...

    Perhaps all this can be classified as a "paradox" about Cantor's set theory, but not in the sense of
    any problem with the theory. "Paradox" just in the sense of "unintuitive result when contrasted
    with finite sets".


    Regards,
    Mike.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mike Terry on Sun Mar 10 12:16:28 2024
    On 09.03.2024 18:30, Mike Terry wrote:


    I agree that the chosen wording above is likely to confuse particulaly non-mathematicians.  That's why when mathematicians talk about infinite sets, they are careful to /define/ the phrases they use to describe them.

    And they will not accept that their definition is misleading.

    For example, they typically would not say "The number of even number and
    the number of natural number are equal", because that would require them
    to have previously defined "the number of" for an infinite set.  More
    likely they say one of the following:

    (a) There is a 1-1 correspondence between the even numbers and the
    natural numbers
        [That is hardly "confusing" to anybody, when the correspondence is demonstrated!]

    (b) The set of even numbers and the set of natural numbers "have the
    same cardinality"
        [Where "have the same cardinality" is defined as there existing a
        1-1 correspondence between the elements of the two sets, i.e. same
    as (a).]

    (c) The set of even numbers and the set of natural numbers are "the same size"
        [...having /defined/ "the same size" as meaning exactly the same as (a)]

    The existence of infinite bijections has ben disproved:

    All positive fractions

    1/1, 1/2, 1/3, 1/4, ...
    2/1, 2/2, 2/3, 2/4, ...
    3/1, 3/2, 3/3, 3/4, ...
    4/1, 4/2, 4/3, 4/4, ...
    ...

    can be indexed by the Cantor function k = (m + n - 1)(m + n - 2)/2 + m
    which attaches the index k to the fraction m/n in Cantor's sequence

    1/1, 1/2, 2/1, 1/3, 2/2, 3/1, 1/4, 2/3, 3/2, 4/1, 1/5, 2/4, 3/3, 4/2, 5/1, 1/6, 2/5, 3/4, ... .

    Its terms can be represented by matrices. When we attach all indeXes k =
    1, 2, 3, ..., for clarity represented by X, to the integer fractions m/1
    and indicate missing indexes by hOles O, then we get the matrix M(0) as starting position:

    XOOO... XXOO... XXOO... XXXO... ... XXXX...
    XOOO... OOOO... XOOO... XOOO... ... XXXX...
    XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... OOOO... ... XXXX...
    XOOO... XOOO... XOOO... OOOO... ... XXXX...
    ... ... ... ... ...
    M(0) M(2) M(3) M(4) M(∞)

    M(1) is the same as M(0) because index 1 remains at 1/1. In M(2) index 2
    from 2/1 has been attached to 1/2. In M(3) index 3 from 3/1 has been
    attached to 2/1. In M(4) index 4 from 4/1 has been attached to 1/3. Successively all fractions of the sequence get indexed. In the limit,
    denoted by M(∞), we see no fraction without index remaining. Note that
    the only difference to Cantor's enumeration is that Cantor does not
    render account for the source of the indices.

    Every X, representing the index k, when taken from its present fraction
    m/n, is replaced by the O taken from the fraction to be indexed by this
    k. Its last carrier m/n will be indexed later by another index.
    Important is that, when continuing, no O can leave the matrix as long as
    any index X blocks the only possible drain, i.e., the first column. And
    if leaving, where should it settle?

    As long as indexes are in the drain, no O has left. The presence of all
    O indicates that almost all fractions are not indexed. And after all
    indexes have been issued and the drain has become free, no indexes are available which could index the remaining matrix elements, yet covered by O.

    It should go without saying that by rearranging the X of M(0) never a
    complete covering can be realized. Lossless transpositions cannot suffer losses. The limit matrix M(∞) only shows what should have happened when
    all fractions were indexed. Logic proves that this cannot have happened
    by exchanges. The only explanation for finally seeing M(∞) is that there
    are invisible matrix positions, existing already at the start. Obviously
    by exchanging O and X no O can leave the matrix, but the O can disappear
    by moving without end, from visible to invisible positions.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sun Mar 10 15:55:13 2024
    On 2024-03-10 11:16:28 +0000, WM said:

    On 09.03.2024 18:30, Mike Terry wrote:


    I agree that the chosen wording above is likely to confuse particulaly
    non-mathematicians.  That's why when mathematicians talk about infinite
    sets, they are careful to /define/ the phrases they use to describe
    them.

    And they will not accept that their definition is misleading.

    In mathematics that is not relevant.

    --
    Mikko

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  • From Mike Terry@21:1/5 to wij on Sun Mar 10 17:38:58 2024
    On 10/03/2024 01:47, wij wrote:
    On Sat, 2024-03-09 at 17:30 +0000, Mike Terry wrote:
    On 09/03/2024 11:45, wij wrote:
    An example is added about Cantor's set theory in the the section [Paradox Explanation]
    https://sourceforge.net/projects/cscall/files/MisFiles/logic_en.txt/download
    and thought it may be interested:

    +---------------------+
    Paradox Explanation |
    +---------------------+
    .....
    .....
    The number of even number and the number of natural number are equal: Ans: >>>      ℕ=ℕ<0,+1> and ℕ<0,+2> are isomorphic but the "even numnber" in the two sets
         are semantically different (i.e. the 6 in ℕ<0,+2> is 3 in ℕ<0,+1> ). They
         are two different set of arithmetic systems. Thus, it is confusing to say
         that the number of elements of an infinite set and its proper subset are
         equal.


    I agree that the chosen wording above is likely to confuse particulaly non-mathematicians.  That's
    why when mathematicians talk about infinite sets, they are careful to /define/ the phrases they use
    to describe them.

    For example, they typically would not say "The number of even number and the number of natural
    number are equal", because that would require them to have previously defined "the number of" for an
    infinite set.  More likely they say one of the following:

    (a) There is a 1-1 correspondence between the even numbers and the natural numbers
         [That is hardly "confusing" to anybody, when the correspondence is demonstrated!]

    (b) The set of even numbers and the set of natural numbers "have the same cardinality"
         [Where "have the same cardinality" is defined as there existing a >>      1-1 correspondence between the elements of the two sets, i.e. same as (a).]

    (c) The set of even numbers and the set of natural numbers are "the same size"
         [...having /defined/ "the same size" as meaning exactly the same as (a)]

    This approach avoids ever directly referring to the "number" of elements in the set.

    Alternatively, perhaps a concept of "cardinal number" has previously been defined, and it's been
    shown that each set corresponds with a unique cardinal number, such that sets have the same
    associated cardinal number exactly when (a) above applies.  Then it would also be OK to say:

    (c) The /cardinality/ of the set of even number equals the /cardinality/ of the
         set of natural numbers.

    Even then I don't think mathematicians would say "The /number/ of even number and the /number/ of
    natural number are equal".  That's just unnecessarily imprecise.

    Perhaps the only people who would talk about the "number" of elements in an infinite set are
    non-mathematicians (most of the population!) dabbling in the subject.  Particularly journalists
    explaining to the general public, and ignorant cranks trying to demonstrate some particular problem
    with infinite sets (while typically misrepresenting the conventional mathematical standpoint)...

    Perhaps all this can be classified as a "paradox" about Cantor's set theory, but not in the sense of
    any problem with the theory.  "Paradox" just in the sense of "unintuitive result when contrasted
    with finite sets".


    Regards,
    Mike.


    Stupid is everywhere. Every one can be stupid, every one can be olcott.
    I interpret the response as a perfect demonstration of what the imaginary, stupid
    mathematician would do: Using (lots) more confusing words to cover the fact or ignorance.


    If you didn't understand any term I used, just ask about it and I'll explain further. To be honest,
    I didn't twig that you were the author of the quotation, or that you wanted any explanation for the
    even/odd issue... (if I had, I'd have replied a bit differently)

    In the example N<0,+2>, where 6 is actually an odd number. So, what does the 'even number' mean? Does it refer to the 'real subset' of the set itself or another set? Please provide a clear example that explains what you say in no confusing way !

    The quote is about comparing the sizes of sets, right? So we have two sets:

    S1 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...}
    S2 = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ...}

    When Cantor/set theory says they are the same size, that is saying that there is a 1-1
    correspondence [one-to-one correspondence] between the elements of the set. Maybe you didn't
    understand what that is. It's a pairing of the elements of the sets, e.g. like this:

    1 <----> 2
    2 <----> 4
    3 <----> 6
    4 <----> 8
    5 <----> 10
    ...
    1-1 correspondence means every element of S1 appears on the left (above) exactly once, every element
    of S2 appears on the right exactly once, so each element of S1 has a corresponding element in S2 and
    vice versa. I think you would agree that the above does indeed demonstrate such a correspondence.

    You are asking something about the 3 <----> 6 line, saying that 3 is "an odd number" and 6 is "even
    if considered as the natural number 6, but odd in the sense that it is the 3rd entry in S2 and 3 is
    odd". Or something like that. So for you, the "semantics" of 3 and 6 as individuals is different,
    so there is some problem with the 1-1 correspondance, which confuses you...

    My response is that we cannot call 3 or 6 even or odd without a lot more "structure" than just the
    bare sets S1 and S2: as a minimum we need to take into account the addition operations which are
    separate structures from S1 and S2 themselves. And the key point is that when we are comparing the
    sizes of two sets, WE DISREGARD ALL THAT "EXTRA STRUCTURE" stuff (what I think you refer to as the
    "semantics" of the elements. We focus just on the individual elements themselves, as though they
    are simply "distinct individuals" in some sense, which are simply to be paired with elements in the
    other set.

    For this pairing process it is of no consequence /what the elements mean/. Just that they are
    correctly paired together. (Or that such a pairing is not possible.)

    Like when we have two sets
    A = {1, 2, 3}
    B = {A, B, C}
    we can match the elements together:
    1 <----> A
    2 <----> B
    3 <----> C
    showing that in Cantor world the sets are the same size.

    But then someone comes along and points out "the elements of A are numbers, while the elements of B
    are letters! They have different semantics, so it is confusing to say the sets have the same size!"

    Hopefully you see the point I'm trying to explain - the "semantics" of the elements is completely
    irrelevant for the purposes of the pairing process, i.e. when we are comparing the "sizes" of the sets.

    If that person /insists/ that they are still confused due to the different semantics of the
    elements, what could be said to cheer them up? Only "just don't be confused! just check out the
    correspondence - does it work or not?"

    I'm not sure if this is really what's confusing you, or is it something else? Since the original
    quote was discussing the "paradox" of a proper subset of N having "the same size" as N itself,
    that's what I've focussed on explaining. I have not really explained about even/odd numbers,
    because that question is nothing whatsoever to do with the "paradox" being discussed. (I'd be happy
    to have a go explaining that too, if you want...)


    Mike.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mike Terry on Tue Mar 12 09:42:38 2024
    On 10.03.2024 18:38, Mike Terry wrote:


    The quote is about comparing the sizes of sets, right?  So we have two
    sets:

      S1 = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, ...}
      S2 = {2, 4, 6, 8, 10, ...}

    When Cantor/set theory says they are the same size, that is saying that
    there is a 1-1 correspondence [one-to-one correspondence] between the elements of the set.

    And that is a lie as most easily is proved by disproving the
    correspondence between natural numbers n/1 and positive fractions:

    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    ...

    Lossless swaps are lossless.

    Regards, WM

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