• Visible evidence for dark natural numbers

    From WM@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 21 11:33:17 2023
    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like
    the visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial
    segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Its existence is the precondition for visibility. Almost all natural
    numbers remain invisible. Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to a finite initial segment of ℕ because for every
    choice, ℵo natural numbers are not chosen.

    All natural numbers together can only be manipulated collectively:

    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0 .

    Here all natural numbers have been manipulated (subtracted). Note: "All
    natural numbers" or ℕ denotes the complete set, i.e., a state such that
    no remainder exists.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 21 03:15:13 2023
    On Tuesday, 21 November 2023 at 11:33:21 UTC+1, WM wrote:
    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like
    the visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial
    segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Its existence is the precondition for visibility. Almost all natural
    numbers remain invisible. Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to a finite initial segment of ℕ because for every choice, ℵo natural numbers are not chosen.

    All natural numbers together can only be manipulated collectively:

    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0 .

    Here all natural numbers have been manipulated (subtracted). Note: "All natural numbers" or ℕ denotes the complete set, i.e., a state such that
    no remainder exists.

    Regards, WM

    The pathetic spectacle that won't stop until you are all brain-dead.

    I miss the "Tai" spammer...

    *Plonk*

    Julio

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Ben Bacarisse@21:1/5 to wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de on Tue Nov 21 11:37:28 2023
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    But since ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo the above is true for every (non-empty) subset of ℕ (including ℕ itself). ℕ_vis is only interesting if there is a n ∈ ℕ such that n ∉ ℕ_vis but since you won't define the property itself so one but you can say anything about it!

    --
    Ben.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Ben Bacarisse on Tue Nov 21 03:44:15 2023
    On Tuesday, 21 November 2023 at 12:37:35 UTC+1, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.m...@tha.de> writes:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the
    visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .
    But since ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo the above is true for
    every (non-empty) subset of ℕ (including ℕ itself). ℕ_vis is only interesting if there is a n ∈ ℕ such that n ∉ ℕ_vis but since you won't
    define the property itself so one but you can say anything about it!

    --
    Ben.

    The pathetic spectacle that won't stop until you are all brain-dead.

    I miss the "Tai" spammer...

    *Plonk*

    Julio

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to Julio Di Egidio on Tue Nov 21 10:44:48 2023
    On 11/21/2023 6:44 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote:
    On Tuesday, 21 November 2023
    at 12:37:35 UTC+1, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    [...]

    I miss the "Tai" spammer...

    You read spammers.
    Why am I not surprised?

    *Plonk*

    Your plonk deplonks.

    Try caulking the seams of your killfile.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Tue Nov 21 08:35:56 2023
    On Tuesday, 21 November 2023 at 16:44:52 UTC+1, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/21/2023 6:44 AM, Julio Di Egidio wrote:
    On Tuesday, 21 November 2023
    at 12:37:35 UTC+1, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    [...]

    I miss the "Tai" spammer...

    You read spammers.
    Why am I not surprised?

    You can't read at all: a systematic liar but incompetent even at that.

    And the pathetic spectacle goes on, until we (you) are all brain-dead.

    I miss the "Tai" spammer...

    *Plonk*

    Julio

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 21 15:45:53 2023
    On 11/21/2023 5:33 AM, WM wrote:

    If something holds for
    many natural numbers except
    almost all natural numbers,
    then it does not hold for
    all natural numbers.

    If
    what we mean by "natural number" is:
    something in some {1,2,3,...,n}₍₁₎
    then
    it holds that,
    for each natural number,
    it is in some {1,2,3,...,n}₍₁₎

    (1)
    {1,2,3,...,n}
    such that
    1‖n begins‖ends {1,2,3,...,n}
    and,
    for each split Fᣔ<ᣔH of {1,2,3,...,n}
    some i‖i⁺¹ ends‖begins F‖H

    i⁺¹ is non-1 non-doppelgänger non-final
    i⁺¹≠1 ∧ ¬∃h≠i:h⁺¹=i⁺¹ ∧ ∃k=(i⁺¹)⁺¹

    A property like
    the visibility of a natural number
    holds only for a finite initial
    segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    Because each natural number is in
    some {1,2,3,...,n}₍₁₎
    each natural number is visible.

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis\{1,2,3,...,n}| = ℵ₀

    ∀S: ∀⟨1,…,n⟩ ⊆ S ⟹ ∀⟨1,…,n⟩ ⊆ ℕ_vis ⊆ S

    Define
    k + n = m :⇔
    ∃⟨⟨k,0,k⟩,…,⟨k,n,m⟩⟩ ordered such that ⟨k,0,k⟩‖⟨k,n,m⟩ begins‖ends ⟨⟨k,0,k⟩,…,⟨k,n,m⟩⟩
    and,
    for each split Fᣔ<ᣔH of ⟨⟨k,0,k⟩,…,⟨k,n,m⟩⟩
    some ⟨k,i,j⟩‖⟨k,i⁺¹,j⁺¹⟩ ends‖begins F‖H

    ∀k ∈ ℕ_vis
    ∃!mₖ ∈ ℕ_vis\⟨1,…,n⟩: mₖ = k+n

    ∀mₖ ∈ ℕ_vis\<1,..,n>:
    ∃!kₘₖ ∈ ℕ_vis: kₘₖ+n = mₖ

    kₘₖ = k

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis:
    |ℕ_vis\{1,2,3,...,n}| = |ℕ_vis| := ℵ₀

    All natural numbers together
    can only be manipulated collectively:

    Natural numbers are abstract.
    They can't be literally manipulated,
    no more than 15 cc of the milk of human kindness
    can be literally measured out.

    When we say numbers are being manipulated,
    it is nearly always understood to be a metaphor
    for describing a manipulation of them.

    Whether or not the metaphor is understood,
    natural numbers are abstract;
    they cannot be literally manipulated.

    However,
    descriptions, in sound waves or pixels or
    bison-fat-and-bright-minerals on a cave wall,
    are not abstract (their meanings are abstract).
    Descriptions can be manipulated.
    Daubed on a cave wall, for example.

    A description of each natural number
    can be manipulated.
    No natural number can be manipulated.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Tue Nov 21 22:54:45 2023
    On 21.11.2023 21:45, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/21/2023 5:33 AM, WM wrote:

    A property like
    the visibility of a natural number
    holds only for a finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    Because each natural number is in
    some {1,2,3,...,n}

    No, that is wrong. Each natural number in a FISON has ℵo successors. The collection of all natural numbers in FISONs cannot have card ℵo because
    all of them have ℵo successors. Two consecutive ℵo-sets in ℕ are impossible.

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis:
    |ℕ_vis\{1,2,3,...,n}| = |ℕ_vis| := ℵ₀

    The latter is wrong. |ℕ_vis\{1,2,3,...,n}| = |ℕ_vis| = larger than every visible n, potentially infinite.

    All natural numbers together
    can only be manipulated collectively:

    When we say numbers are being manipulated,
    it is nearly always understood to be a metaphor
    for describing a manipulation of them.

    We can subtract all natural numbers from ℕ and nothing remains.
    We can subtract all FISONs and thereby all visible numbers from ℕ and
    almost all numbers remain.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Ben Bacarisse on Tue Nov 21 22:44:00 2023
    On 21.11.2023 12:37, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the >> visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, >> 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    But since ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    That is wrong!
    All natural numbers can be subtracted such that none remains
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}|= |ℕ \ ℕ| = 0 .
    However accumulating |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| for every n that we can distinguish, we get

    |ℕ \ {1}| = ℵo
    |ℕ \ {1, 2}| = ℵo
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3}| = ℵo
    ...

    We cannot insert all natural numbers n leaving ℵo natural numbers. We
    will stay always in the potentially infinite collection ℕ_vis.

    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo .

    Cantor already knew that the actually infinite set is required when the potentally infinite set is to be uses.


    the above is true for
    every (non-empty) subset of ℕ (including ℕ itself).

    No. |ℕ \ ℕ| = 0 .


    ℕ_vis is only
    interesting if there is a n ∈ ℕ such that n ∉ ℕ_vis

    Almost all natural numbers are ∉ ℕ_vis.

    but since you won't
    define the property itself so one but you can say anything about it!

    Cantor already was clairvoyant enough: Potential infinity requires
    actual infinity. Let Google translate it:
    Die weite Reise, welche Herbart seiner "wandelbaren Grenze" vorschreibt,
    ist eingestandenermaßen nicht auf einen endlichen Weg beschränkt; so muß denn ihr Weg ein unendlicher, und zwar, weil er seinerseits nichts
    Wandelndes, sondern überall fest ist, ein aktualunendlicher Weg sein. Es fordert also jedes potentiale Unendliche (die wandelnde Grenze) ein Transfinitum (den sichern Weg zum Wandeln) und kann ohne letzteres nicht gedacht werden. Da wir uns aber durch unsre Arbeiten der breiten
    Heerstraße des Transfiniten versichert, sie wohl fundiert und sorgsam gepflastert haben, so öffnen wir sie dem Verkehr und stellen sie als
    eiserne Grundlage, nutzbar allen Freunden des potentialen Unendlichen,
    im besonderen aber der wanderlustigen Herbartschen "Grenze"
    bereitwilligst zur Verfügung; gern und ruhig überlassen wir die rastlose
    der Eintönigkeit ihres durchaus nicht beneidenswerten Geschicks; wandle
    sie nur immer weiter, es wird ihr von nun an nie mehr der Boden unter
    den Füßen schwinden. Glück auf die Reise! [Cantor, p. 393]

    Regards, WM


    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Julio Di Egidio@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 22 02:00:41 2023
    On Tuesday, 21 November 2023 at 22:54:49 UTC+1, WM wrote:
    On 21.11.2023 21:45, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/21/2023 5:33 AM, WM wrote:

    A property like
    the visibility of a natural number
    holds only for a finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    Because each natural number is in
    some {1,2,3,...,n}

    No, that is wrong. Each natural number in a FISON has ℵo successors. The collection of all natural numbers in FISONs cannot have card ℵo because all of them have ℵo successors. Two consecutive ℵo-sets in ℕ are impossible.

    20+ years of that fucking bullshit and you still just fuck up the very definition of cardinality...

    And the pathetic spectacle goes on and on and on... until we are all extinguished.

    I miss the "Tai" spammer, you nazi-retarded pieces of polluting shit.

    *Plonk*

    Julio

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 22 10:40:01 2023
    On 11/21/2023 4:54 PM, WM wrote:
    On 21.11.2023 21:45, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/21/2023 5:33 AM, WM wrote:

    A property like
    the visibility of a natural number
    holds only for
    a finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    Because each natural number is in
    some {1,2,3,...,n}

    No, that is wrong.
    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵo successors.

    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵ₀ successors in a FISON

    ...because
    each FISON has
    another, different FISON after it which is
    its extension by one more natural number.
    Thus, each FISON is
    not the second end of FISONs.


    We can't seeᵂᴹ the second end of the FISONs.

    We CAN see the description true of each FISON
    and
    we CAN see claims after the description which
    we CAN see are not-first-false
    and
    we CAN see the claims aren't infinitely-many.

    We can't seeᵂᴹ the second end of the FISONs
    and,
    by what we CAN see, we know that
    the reason we can't seeᵂᴹ their second end
    is
    not that their second end exists in the darkᵂᴹ
    Their second end not-exists.
    We know that their second end not-exists,
    seenᵂᴹ or unseenᵂᴹ
    by what we CAN see,
    description and not-first-false-ness.

    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵo successors.
    The collection of
    all natural numbers in FISONs
    cannot have card ℵo because
    all of them have ℵo successors.
    Two consecutive ℵo-sets in ℕ
    are impossible.

    ℵ₀ is not a way to say ridiculously large.

    ℕ is 1×1 1.ended

    We know that
    ℕ is 1×1 1.ended
    by what we CAN see,
    description and not-first-false-ness

    Each 1×1 1.ended is the same "size" as
    every other 1×1 1.ended
    We know they are by
    description and not-first-false-ness

    ℵ₀ is the name we give to
    that one "size" which each 1×1 1.ended has.


    ℕ is ℵ₀-many 1×1 1.ended
    Each split of ℕ is 3.ended with
    one part finite 1×1 2.ended
    the other ℵ₀-many 1×1 1.ended

    Each split of the 1×1 1.ended is 3.ended with
    one part finite 1×1 2.ended
    the other ℵ₀-many 1×1 1.ended
    Again.
    And again.
    And again.

    ℵ₀-many,
    finite and ℵ₀-many
    finite, finite and ℵ₀-many
    finite, finite, finite and ℵ₀-many
    Without end.

    Two consecutive ℵo-sets in ℕ
    are impossible.

    Two consecutive ℵ₀-sets in ℕ
    are also unnecessary.

    ℕ is 1×1 1.ended,
    not ridiculously-large 1×1 2.ended.
    Everything else follows from that,
    such as, finite, finite, finite and ℵ₀-many.

    1×1 1.ended follows from our SEEING that
    any FISON can be extended to another FISON,
    by description and not-first-false-ness

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 22 10:37:59 2023
    On Tuesday, November 21, 2023 at 10:44:04 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:
    On 21.11.2023 12:37, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    That is wrong!

    Was ist wrong, Du geisteskranker Spinner?

    Da ist NICHTS wrong.

    Nur mit Deinem Gehirn stimmt offenbar etwas nicht (mehr).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 22 10:36:43 2023
    On Tuesday, November 21, 2023 at 10:54:49 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:
    On 21.11.2023 21:45, Jim Burns wrote:

    each [and every] natural number is in some {1, 2, 3, ..., n}.

    Formally: Ak e IN: En e IN: k e {1, 2, 3, ..., n}.

    For each and every natural number k there is a natural number n such that k is an element in {1, ..., n}.

    Hint, you psychotic asshole full of shit: Each and every natural number k is in {1, ..., k}.

    No, that is wrong.

    Nein, das ist NICHT wrong, you psychotic asshole.

    Each natural number in a FISON has ℵo successors.

    Hint: Each and every natural number has ℵo successors.

    The collection of all natural numbers in FISONs cannot have card ℵo

    The collection of all natural numbers [which are] in [some] FISONs is the union of all FISONs.

    The union of all FISONs is IN, and IN has card ℵo.

    because all of them have ℵo successors.

    This "argument" ist simply nonsense. In other words: non sequitur.

    Two <bla>

    Yeah, whatever Mückenheim.

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 22 10:26:36 2023
    On Tuesday, November 21, 2023 at 10:44:04 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:
    On 21.11.2023 12:37, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    That is wrong!

    Was ist wrong, Du geisteskranker Spinner?

    Da ist NICHTS wrong.

    Nur mit Deinem Gehirn stimmt offenbar etwas nicht (mehr).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Thu Nov 23 10:56:20 2023
    On 22.11.2023 16:40, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/21/2023 4:54 PM, WM wrote:


    No, that is wrong.
    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵo successors.

    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵ₀ successors in a FISON

    Impossible because two consecutive ℵo-sets in ℕ are impossible.
    Two consecutive ℵ₀-sets in ℕ
    are also unnecessary.

    If ℵo elements are in FISONs (in their union ℕ_def) and ℵo elements are successors of all FISONs (in ℕ \ ℕ_def), then two such sets would be necessary.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 23 12:47:03 2023
    On 2023-11-21 10:33:17 +0000, WM said:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    There is no "visibility" property of natural numbers. However, it is
    true that
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to a finite initial segment of ℕ because for every choice, ℵo natural numbers are not chosen.

    There is no "can be chosen" property of natural numbers. Every natural
    number can be chosen. E.g., every natural number is the smallest one in
    some subset of natural numbers.

    Mikko

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to Julio Di Egidio on Thu Nov 23 12:56:18 2023
    On 2023-11-21 11:44:15 +0000, Julio Di Egidio said:

    I miss the "Tai" spammer...

    You can find them in comp.theory.

    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Thu Nov 23 16:44:48 2023
    On 23.11.2023 11:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-21 10:33:17 +0000, WM said:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property
    like the
    visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment
    {1, 2,
    3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    There is no "visibility" property of natural numbers.

    You can see and choose many, not all though.

    However, it is
    true that
       ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    That cannot be true for all natural numbers, because then almost all
    (ℵo) natural numbers would follow upon all natural numbers.

    Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to a
    finite
    initial segment of ℕ because for every choice, ℵo natural numbers are not
    chosen.

    There is no "can be chosen" property of natural numbers. Every natural
    number can be chosen.

    Why don't you choose a natural number that has less than ℵo successors?
    The collection ℕ_vis of all natural numbers that can be chosen has ℵo successors. The collection of all natural numbers has no successors.
    Collecting all natural numbers with the property
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo
    yields ℕ_vis
    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo.
    The set of all natural numbers differs significantly:
    |ℕ \ ℕ| = 0.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 23 18:48:21 2023
    On Thursday, November 23, 2023 at 4:44:52 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    Why don't you choose a natural number that has less than ℵo successors?

    Vermutlich primär deshalb, weil es keine solche natürliche Zahl g i b t, Du geisteskrankes Arschloch voller Scheiße!

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 24 10:29:44 2023
    On 2023-11-23 15:44:48 +0000, WM said:

    On 23.11.2023 11:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-21 10:33:17 +0000, WM said:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the >>> visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, 2,
    3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    There is no "visibility" property of natural numbers.

    You can see and choose many, not all though.

    However, it is
    true that
       ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    That cannot be true for all natural numbers, because then almost all
    (ℵo) natural numbers would follow upon all natural numbers.

    That "because" is unprovable and invalid.

    Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to a finite
    initial segment of ℕ because for every choice, ℵo natural numbers are not
    chosen.

    There is no "can be chosen" property of natural numbers. Every natural
    number can be chosen.

    Why don't you choose a natural number that has less than ℵo successors?

    The same reason you can't choose a natural number less than zero:
    there is no such natural number.

    The collection ℕ_vis of all natural numbers that can be chosen has ℵo successors.

    As every natural number can be chosen, ℕ_vis = ℕ. Every natural number
    has ℵo successors but ℕ_vis has none.

    The collection of all natural numbers has no successors.
    Collecting all natural numbers with the property
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo
    yields ℕ_vis
    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo.

    No, it yields |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = 0 because ℕ = ℕ_vis.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Fri Nov 24 11:16:18 2023
    On 24.11.2023 09:29, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-23 15:44:48 +0000, WM said:

    On 23.11.2023 11:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-21 10:33:17 +0000, WM said:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property
    like the
    visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial
    segment {1, 2,
    3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    There is no "visibility" property of natural numbers.

    You can see and choose many, not all though.

    However, it is
    true that
       ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    That cannot be true for all natural numbers, because then almost all
    (ℵo) natural numbers would follow upon all natural numbers.

    That "because" is unprovable and invalid.

    Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to
    a finite
    initial segment of ℕ because for every choice, ℵo natural numbers
    are not
    chosen.

    There is no "can be chosen" property of natural numbers. Every natural
    number can be chosen.

    Why don't you choose a natural number that has less than ℵo successors?

    The same reason you can't choose a natural number less than zero:
    there is no such natural number.

    Choose all natural number which you can choose as individuals. Collect
    them into a set X. Remove that set from ℕ. What will remain? The ℵo successors should remain.

    The collection ℕ_vis of all natural numbers that can be chosen has ℵo
    successors.

    As every natural number can be chosen, ℕ_vis = ℕ. Every natural number has ℵo successors but ℕ_vis has none.

    What you claim is a contradiction. If ℕ_vis has not ℵo successors, then
    the reason can only be, that there are visible numbers with less
    successors. What else should be the reason?

    Without the existence of visible numbers with less successors, all
    elements of ℕ_vis would have ℵo successors. That means ℕ_vis would have ℵo successors.

    The collection of all natural numbers has no successors.
    Collecting all natural numbers with the property
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo
    yields ℕ_vis
    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo.

    No, it yields |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = 0 because ℕ = ℕ_vis.

    Then you should be able to remove/subtract, choosing one by one, all
    natural numbers from ℕ.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 24 08:47:50 2023
    On 11/23/2023 4:56 AM, WM wrote:
    On 22.11.2023 16:40, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/21/2023 4:54 PM, WM wrote:

    No, that is wrong.
    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵo successors.

    Each natural number in a FISON has
    ℵ₀ successors in a FISON

    Impossible because
    two consecutive ℵo-sets in ℕ
    are impossible.

    For the set ℕ₀ of
    all and only finite successors of 0
    two consecutive ℵ₀-sets in ℕ₀
    are unnecessary.

    Describe ℕ₀
    ∀S: ∀⟨1,…,n⟩ ⊆ S ⟹
    ∀⟨1,…,n⟩ ⊆ ℕ₀ ⊆ S

    We label the "size" of ℕ₀ as ℵ₀
    |ℕ₀| = ℵ₀

    Let m ∈ ℕ₀
    Describe the set ℕₘ of
    all and only finite successors of m
    ∀S: ∀⟨m+1,…,m+n⟩ ⊆ S ⟹
    ∀⟨m+1,…,m+n⟩ ⊆ ℕₘ ⊆ S

    From the descriptions of ℕ₀ and ℕₘ
    we know

    ∀k₀ ∈ ℕ₀ , ∃⟨1,…,n⟩ :
    ℕ₀ ⊇ ⟨1,…,n⟩ ∋ k₀
    ∃kₘ ∈ ⟨m+1,…,m+n⟩ ⊆ ℕₘ :
    kₘ = m+k₀

    ∀kₘ ∈ ℕₘ , ∃⟨m+1,…,m+n⟩ :
    ℕₘ ⊇ ⟨m+1,…,m+n⟩ ∋ kₘ
    ∃k₀ ∈ ⟨1,…,n⟩ ⊆ ℕ₀ :
    m+k₀ = kₘ

    ∀k₀ ∈ ℕ₀ , ∃kₘ ∈ ℕₘ
    ∀kₘ ∈ ℕₘ , ∃k₀ ∈ ℕ₀

    For each m ∈ ℕ₀
    |ℕₘ| = |ℕ₀| = a0
    ℕₘ is an ℵ₀-set

    ∀m ∈ ℕ₀ : |ℕ₀\⟨1,…,m⟩| = |ℕₘ| = ℵ₀

    Two consecutive ℵ₀-sets in ℕ₀
    are unnecessary.

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Fri Nov 24 19:59:16 2023
    On 11/24/2023 5:16 AM, WM wrote:
    On 24.11.2023 09:29, Mikko wrote:

    As every natural number can be chosen,
    ℕ_vis = ℕ.
    Every natural number has ℵo successors
    but ℕ_vis has none.

    What you claim is a contradiction.

    A set which can be ordered 1x1 2.ended
    is finite,
    even a ridiculously-large set which
    can be ordered 1×1 2.ended
    is finite.

    If ℕ_vis has not ℵo successors,
    then the reason can only be, that
    there are visible numbers with
    less [successor].

    "less /plural noun/" is incorrect English.

    https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mass_noun
    Stoffname

    What else should be the reason?

    Each 1×1 1.ended is the same "size" as
    every other 1×1 1.ended,
    a "size" which is named ℵ₀

    Each number n in ℕ_vis
    is visible and
    determines a split of ℕ_vis into
    1x1 2.ended visible predecessors and
    1x1 1.ended visible successors,
    ℵ₀-many visible successors.

    Without the existence of
    visible numbers with less [successor],
    all elements of ℕ_vis would have ℵo successors.

    Yes, they do.

    That means ℕ_vis would have
    ℵo successors.

    No.
    No element of ℕ_vis succeeds
    all elements of ℕ_vis.
    Contrariwise,
    each element of ℕ_vis not-succeeds
    ℵ₀-many elements of ℕ_vis

    No, it yields |ℕ\ℕ_vis| = 0
    because ℕ = ℕ_vis.

    Then
    you should be able to remove/subtract,
    choosing one by one,
    all natural numbers from ℕ.

    They (or you, or I) should not be able to
    perform a supertask, such as
    removing ℵ₀-many numbers one by one.

    However,
    reasoning about
    removing ℵ₀-many numbers one by one
    might not be supertask,
    might be finite-length description, and then
    only finitely-many finitely-length
    not-first-false claims,
    thus not a supertask.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Ben Bacarisse@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 25 00:26:37 2023
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:
    (AKA Dr. Wolfgang Mückenheim or Mueckenheim who teaches "Geschichte des Unendlichen" at Hochschule Augsburg.)

    On 21.11.2023 12:37, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the >>> visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, >>> 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .
    But since ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    That is wrong!

    No it's provably true, and I suspect you know that it is. You certainly
    should know that it is.

    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo .

    Since you can't define ℕ_vis, no one can prove you wrong. All you've
    said is that ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and there are countless sets with that property.

    but since you won't
    define the property itself so one but you can say anything about it!

    There have been a lot of posts and replies since mine, but nowhere do
    you even try to define what ℕ_vis is. That's because you can't.

    --
    Ben.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Sat Nov 25 18:13:15 2023
    On 25.11.2023 01:59, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/24/2023 5:16 AM, WM wrote:

    Each number n in ℕ_vis
    is visible and
    determines a split of ℕ_vis into
    1x1 2.ended visible predecessors and
    1x1 1.ended visible successors,
    ℵ₀-many visible successors.

    A visible number can be named as an individual. That is the definition
    of the property "visible".
    Name ℵ₀ visible successors. Fail. Try to understand the mistake of ZF.

    Without the existence of
    visible numbers with less [successor],
    all elements of ℕ_vis would have ℵo successors.

    Yes, they do.

    In fact, for every visible number and for all that can be collected as individuals into ℕ_vis we have
    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵ₀.
    Proof by trying and failing to get a smaller difference.


    That means ℕ_vis would have ℵo successors.

    No.

    Then Prove the contrary. Try to establish a smaller difference. Fail.

    No element of ℕ_vis succeeds
    all elements of ℕ_vis.

    In fact! The collection is potentially infinite.
    But collectively you can succeed to get the complete set ℕ. It is not
    ℕ_vis because you cannot do it with individuals.

    No, it yields |ℕ\ℕ_vis| = 0
    because ℕ = ℕ_vis.

    By definition ℕ_vis contains only elements which cannot complete the
    set. You said it above: No element of ℕ_vis succeeds. Therefore ℕ_vis is not ℕ.

    Then
    you should be able to remove/subtract,
    choosing one by one,
    all natural numbers from ℕ.

    They (or you, or I) should not be able to
    perform a supertask, such as
    removing ℵ₀-many numbers one by one.

    Therefore ℕ_vis is smaller than ℕ.

    However,
    reasoning about
    removing ℵ₀-many numbers one by one
    might not be supertask,

    One by one it is impossible because
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.
    Reasoning cannot change this fact.

    Result: One by one it is impossible. Collectively it is possible.
    ℕ_vis is smaller than ℕ.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Ben Bacarisse on Sat Nov 25 18:29:23 2023
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:
    (AKA Dr. Wolfgang Mückenheim or Mueckenheim who teaches "Geschichte des Unendlichen" at Hochschule Augsburg.)

    On 21.11.2023 12:37, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural
    numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the
    visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, >>>> 2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .
    But since ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    That is wrong!

    No it's provably true, and I suspect you know that it is.

    It is provable in an inconsistent theory.

    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo .

    Since you can't define ℕ_vis

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection
    X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    ℕ_vis = X.

    no one can prove you wrong. All you've
    said is that ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and there are countless sets with that property.

    In fact, ℕ_vis is potentially infinite. But all these countless sets
    have a common property, namely |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo.

    ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo (*)
    is wrong because collecting all n with the property (*) into ℕ_vis and assuming |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = 0, then the property (*) must have vanished by
    magic spell. That is not mathematics.

    But in order to exclude also that spell, I define (see above): ℕ_vis is
    the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected such that the collection keeps this property: ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo. As soon as this result is violated, we stop to collect.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 25 10:49:12 2023
    On Saturday, November 25, 2023 at 6:13:20 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    A visible number can be named as an individual.

    Each and every natural number "can [in principle] be named as an individual", you silly crank.

    Proof (by induction): "I" denotes (is a name for) 1. If X denotes (is a name for) n, then X followed by "|" denotes (is a name for) n+1.

    In other words:
    The name for 1 is "|".
    The name for s(1) is "||".
    The name for s(s(1)) is "|||".
    etc.

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 25 11:06:12 2023
    On Saturday, November 25, 2023 at 6:29:28 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    In fact, ℕ_vis is potentially infinite.

    Mückenheim, es geht hier um MENGENLEHRE. In der Mengenlehre gibt es keine "potentiell unendlichen" Mengen (was immer das auch sein soll), sondern nur endliche oder unendliche.

    Also: card(ℕ_vis) e IN oder eben card(ℕ_vis) !e IN. "Dazwischen" gibt es nichts.

    Hint: AX: card(X) e IN v card(X) !e IN

    Or: AX: card(X) e IN v ~(card(X) e IN).

    See: Classical logic.

    Btw. Sets don't "change". They don't "grow" or "shrink".

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 25 23:02:52 2023
    On 11/25/2023 12:13 PM, WM wrote:
    On 25.11.2023 01:59, Jim Burns wrote:

    Each number n in ℕ_vis
    is visible and
    determines a split of ℕ_vis into
    1x1 2.ended visible predecessors and
    1x1 1.ended visible successors,
    ℵ₀-many visible successors.

    A visible number can be named
    as an individual.
    That is the definition of
    the property "visible".

    The visibleᵂᴹ is nameableᵂᴹ
    The nameableᵂᴹ is definableᵂᴹ
    The definableᵂᴹ is accessibleᵂᴹ
    The accessibleᵂᴹ is tangibleᵂᴹ
    The tangibleᵂᴹ is olfactibleᵂᴹ
    The olfactibleᵂᴹ is edibleᵂᴹ
    The edibleᵂᴹ is visibleᵂᴹ

    So. That's all cleared up.


    From some comments you've made and some
    things you have or have not objected to,
    I have gathered the impression that visibleᵂᴹ-nameableᵂᴹ-definableᵂᴹ-...-edibleᵂᴹ
    means not-darkᵂᴹ and
    darkᵂᴹ means ridiculously-large,
    too large to be counted to by
    universe-sized computers, et cetera.
    _But finite_

    A finite set has an order such that
    first and last exists and,
    for each split Fᣔ<ᣔH
    last in F and first in H exist.

    I suspect that you intend darkᵂᴹ and visibleᵂᴹ
    to stand in place of infinite and finite

    One important distinction between
    darkᵂᴹ:visibleᵂᴹ and infinite:finite is that
    ridiculously-large can be finite,
    with first, last, last-befores and first-afters.

    You might remember my mentioning:
    infinite is not ridiculously-large finite.

    Name ℵ₀ visible successors.
    Fail.

    Describe the natural numbers and
    augment not-first-falsely with the claim
    that each natural number has
    ℵ₀ natural numbers after that number,
    with none being last, none being after all.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Sun Nov 26 11:19:19 2023
    On 26.11.2023 05:02, Jim Burns wrote:
    On 11/25/2023 12:13 PM, WM wrote:
    On 25.11.2023 01:59, Jim Burns wrote:

    Each number n in ℕ_vis
    is visible and
    determines a split of ℕ_vis into
    1x1 2.ended visible predecessors and
    1x1 1.ended visible successors,
    ℵ₀-many visible successors.

    A visible number can be named
    as an individual.
    That is the definition of
    the property "visible".

    The visibleᵂᴹ is nameableᵂᴹ
    The nameableᵂᴹ is definableᵂᴹ
    The definableᵂᴹ is accessibleᵂᴹ
    The accessibleᵂᴹ is tangibleᵂᴹ

    Yes, it can be manipulated as an individual.

    So. That's all cleared up.

    From some comments you've made and some
    things you have or have not objected to,
    I have gathered the impression that visibleᵂᴹ-nameableᵂᴹ-definableᵂᴹ-...-edibleᵂᴹ
    means not-darkᵂᴹ

    So it is. I can tell you the indi vidual such that you know its value.

     and
    darkᵂᴹ means ridiculously-large,
    too large to be counted to by
    universe-sized computers, et cetera.
    _But finite_

    Yes.

    A finite set has an order such that
    first and last exists and,
    for each split Fᣔ<ᣔH
    last in F and first in H exist.

    I suspect that you intend darkᵂᴹ and visibleᵂᴹ
    to stand in place of infinite and finite

    All visible natnumbers belong to a finite set which however is not
    bounded. It is potentially infinite. It is described by the Peano axioms.

    One important distinction between
    darkᵂᴹ:visibleᵂᴹ and infinite:finite is that
    ridiculously-large can be finite,
    with first, last, last-befores and first-afters.

    WE cannot determine the order of dark numbers. An example is the set of
    unit fractions. NUF(x) increases from 0 at 0 to more than 0 for x > 0.
    All unit fractions have non-vanishing distances from each other. This
    implies a smallest one. But the smallest ℵo unit fractions cannot be distingusihed.

    You might remember my mentioning:
    infinite is not ridiculously-large finite.

    All natnumbers are finite. The ℵ₀ natnumbers following upon every
    visible natnumbers are all finite. Could we determine each one, we would
    end at a finite value of a number with finitely many predecessors. This
    holds for every natural number. Only the darkness prevents to step
    through all to the end, namely ω. To see it nevertheless is Cantor's merit.

    Name ℵ₀ visible successors.
    Fail.

    Describe the natural numbers and
    augment not-first-falsely with the claim
    that each natural number has
    ℵ₀ natural numbers after that number,
    with none being last, none being after all.

    Yes, each natural number has ℵ₀ natural numbers after that number. Many
    of them are visible or can be made visible but almost all remain dark -
    like the unit fractions: We know the end, namely 0, but we cannot find
    all individuals 1/n although we can prove that never two or more sit at
    the same place.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Sun Nov 26 12:13:19 2023
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:

    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X
    such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite
    initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.

    it does not identify any particular subset.

    It identifies the potentially infinite collection of finite initial
    segments. But importantly, it excludes the set ℕ. That is enough to show
    that your claim ℕ = X is wrong.

    ℕ_vis = X.

    Still undefined.

    Defined enough such that ℕ = X is excluded for every X that is possible according to the definition.

    no one can prove you wrong.  All you've
    said is that ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and there are
    countless sets with that property.

    In fact, ℕ_vis is potentially infinite. But all these countless sets
    have a common property, namely |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo.

    You mean, because ℕ_vis is still undefined, we cannot know whether it
    is infinite?

    The possible sets of that collection are defined enough to exclude ℕ = X.

    ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo (*)
    is wrong because collecting all n with the property (*) into ℕ_vis and
    assuming |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = 0, then the property (*) must have vanished by
    magic spell. That is not mathematics.

    It seems that nothing that mentions ℕ_vis is mathematics.

    Then you cannot recognize mathematics. Your problem.

    But in order to exclude also that spell, I define (see above): ℕ_vis
    is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected such that the
    collection keeps this property: |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo. As soon as this
    result is violated, we stop to collect.

    With this procedure you never stop collecting and therefore never get ℕ_vis.

    On the contrary: "Never stop collecting" means potential infinity. Never
    ℕ is reached. For all instances of ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo. QED.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 26 12:56:45 2023
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:

    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:
    (AKA Dr. Wolfgang Mückenheim or Mueckenheim who teaches "Geschichte des
    Unendlichen" at Hochschule Augsburg.)

    On 21.11.2023 12:37, Ben Bacarisse wrote:
    WM <wolfgang.mueckenheim@tha.de> writes:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural >>>>> numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the
    visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .
    But since ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    That is wrong!

    No it's provably true, and I suspect you know that it is.

    It is provable in an inconsistent theory.

    The theory may seem inconsistent to someone who uses some defective logic.

    |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo .

    Since you can't define ℕ_vis

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X

    Syntax error. If you mean |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo, then that is
    true about every natural number.

    such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ and many infinite ones, so
    it does not identify any particular subset.

    ℕ_vis = X.

    Still undefined.

    no one can prove you wrong. All you've
    said is that ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and there are
    countless sets with that property.

    In fact, ℕ_vis is potentially infinite. But all these countless sets
    have a common property, namely |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo.

    You mean, because ℕ_vis is still undefined, we cannot know whether it
    is infinite?

    ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo (*)
    is wrong because collecting all n with the property (*) into ℕ_vis and assuming |ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = 0, then the property (*) must have vanished by magic spell. That is not mathematics.

    It seems that nothing that mentions ℕ_vis is mathematics.

    But in order to exclude also that spell, I define (see above): ℕ_vis is
    the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected such that the collection keeps this property: ℕ \ ℕ_vis| = ℵo. As soon as this result is violated, we stop to collect.

    With this procedure you never stop collecting and therefore never get ℕ_vis.

    Mikko

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  • From Transfinity@21:1/5 to Jim Burns on Sun Nov 26 12:11:54 2023
    Jim Burns schrieb am Sonntag, 26. November 2023 um 20:35:09 UTC+1:
    On 11/26/2023 5:19 AM, WM wrote:

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    a finite set which however
    is not bounded.
    I think you're thinking "ended" and
    writing "bounded"

    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    an _infinite_ set which
    is not _ended_

    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.

    That there must be a first disagreement
    follows from
    the predecessors of n being finitely-many.

    That is fact because n is finite.

    We cannot determine the order of dark numbers.
    Per you elsewhere, we also cannot say
    that a darkᵂᴹ number equals itself.

    We cannot prove it, but we must assume it. Otherwise dark numbers would be nonsense.

    For example,
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis\⟨0,…,n⟩| = ℵ₀

    Since ℕ_vis is finite and therefore smaller than ℵ₀, this is wrong.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 26 14:35:04 2023
    On 11/26/2023 5:19 AM, WM wrote:
    On 26.11.2023 05:02, Jim Burns wrote:

    A finite set has an order such that
    first and last exists and,
    for each split Fᣔ<ᣔH
    last in F and first in H exist.

    I suspect that you intend darkᵂᴹ and visibleᵂᴹ
    to stand in place of infinite and finite

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    a finite set which however
    is not bounded.

    I think you're thinking "ended" and
    writing "bounded"
    An end must be in
    what it ends.
    A bound doesn't need to be in
    what it bounds.

    Any actually-infiniteᵂᴹ set which
    all visible numbers belong to
    is a _bound_ of all ⟨0,…,n⟩
    whatever else is in that bounding set.

    A _finite_ ordered set has two ends.
    Not two ends, not finite.

    (Also,
    not, for each split, two more ends,
    not finite.)

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    an _infinite_ set which
    is not _ended_

    It is potentially infinite.
    It is described by the Peano axioms.

    There are infinitely-many visibleᵂᴹ numbers.
    Each visibleᵂᴹ number i is non-final.
    | ∀⟨0,…,i⟩: ∃⟨0,…,i,i⁺¹⟩


    Each visibleᵂᴹ number is finitely-preceded.
    The Peano axioms follow from
    the finiteness of visibleᵂᴹ predecessors.

    In particular,
    _induction_ can be expressed this way:
    | If 0 and visible n disagree, P(0)∧¬P(n)
    | then, for some visible i and i⁺¹
    | i and i⁺¹ disagree.
    | ∃⟨0,…,n⟩: P(0)∧¬P(n) ⟹
    | ∃⟨0,…,i,i⁺¹⟩: P(i)∧¬P(i⁺¹)

    Proof:
    If n disagrees, P(0)∧¬P(n)
    some _first_ i⁺¹ disagrees, and
    i before i⁺¹ agrees, P(i)∧¬P(i⁺¹)

    That there must be a first disagreement
    follows from
    the predecessors of n being finitely-many.

    One important distinction between
    darkᵂᴹ:visibleᵂᴹ and infinite:finite is that
    ridiculously-large can be finite,
    with first, last, last-befores and first-afters.

    WE cannot determine the order of dark numbers.

    Per you elsewhere, we also cannot say
    that a darkᵂᴹ number equals itself.
    <shrug>

    On the other hand,
    infinitely-many non-final finitely-preceded
    visibleᵂᴹ numbers have
    all the properties which you baselessly assert
    require darkᵂᴹ numbers.

    For example,
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis\⟨0,…,n⟩| = ℵ₀

    ...for ℕ_vis such that
    ∀S: ∀⟨0,…,n⟩ ⊆ S ⟹ ∀⟨0,…,n⟩ ⊆ ℕ_vis ⊆ S

    ℵ₀ = |ℕ_vis|

    It happens that we don't need to say that
    a darkᵂᴹ number equals itself. Or not-say that.

    Saying what visibleᵂᴹ numbers are, and
    saying after that only not-first-false claims
    is sufficient to show that
    that which you baselessly assert is
    impossible for only visibleᵂᴹ numbers is
    possible for only visibleᵂᴹ numbers.

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  • From Daniel Pehoushek@21:1/5 to Daniel Pehoushek on Sun Nov 26 12:46:58 2023
    On Sunday, November 26, 2023 at 3:38:02 PM UTC-5, Daniel Pehoushek wrote:
    On Sunday, November 26, 2023 at 3:11:56 PM UTC-5, Transfinity wrote:
    Jim Burns schrieb am Sonntag, 26. November 2023 um 20:35:09 UTC+1:
    On 11/26/2023 5:19 AM, WM wrote:

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    a finite set which however
    is not bounded.
    I think you're thinking "ended" and
    writing "bounded"
    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.
    All visible natnumbers belong to
    an _infinite_ set which
    is not _ended_
    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.
    That there must be a first disagreement
    follows from
    the predecessors of n being finitely-many.
    That is fact because n is finite.

    We cannot determine the order of dark numbers.
    Per you elsewhere, we also cannot say
    that a darkᵂᴹ number equals itself.
    We cannot prove it, but we must assume it. Otherwise dark numbers would be nonsense.
    For example,
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis\⟨0,…,n⟩| = ℵ₀
    Since ℕ_vis is finite and therefore smaller than ℵ₀, this is wrong.

    Regards, WM
    i have logic source code that uses the set 0123 for lowlevel reason on truth trees.
    i call set 0123 "light numbers".
    from the light maybe you can get dark?

    avoid negation and prosper in truth
    daniel2380+++
    that is 2 bit numbers may be called light.
    you could call 32 bit numbers light.
    with bignums you get 2^32 numbers that could be lighter than bigger numbers.
    so we have degrees of lightness related to size.
    with the comparison operator we have to handle the size relation.

    does the set of natnumbers require or imply comparison with lessthan? daniel2380+++

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  • From Daniel Pehoushek@21:1/5 to Transfinity on Sun Nov 26 12:38:00 2023
    On Sunday, November 26, 2023 at 3:11:56 PM UTC-5, Transfinity wrote:
    Jim Burns schrieb am Sonntag, 26. November 2023 um 20:35:09 UTC+1:
    On 11/26/2023 5:19 AM, WM wrote:

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    a finite set which however
    is not bounded.
    I think you're thinking "ended" and
    writing "bounded"
    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.
    All visible natnumbers belong to
    an _infinite_ set which
    is not _ended_
    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.
    That there must be a first disagreement
    follows from
    the predecessors of n being finitely-many.
    That is fact because n is finite.

    We cannot determine the order of dark numbers.
    Per you elsewhere, we also cannot say
    that a darkᵂᴹ number equals itself.
    We cannot prove it, but we must assume it. Otherwise dark numbers would be nonsense.
    For example,
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis\⟨0,…,n⟩| = ℵ₀
    Since ℕ_vis is finite and therefore smaller than ℵ₀, this is wrong.

    Regards, WM
    i have logic source code that uses the set 0123 for lowlevel reason on truth trees.
    i call set 0123 "light numbers".
    from the light maybe you can get dark?

    avoid negation and prosper in truth
    daniel2380+++

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  • From Daniel Pehoushek@21:1/5 to Daniel Pehoushek on Sun Nov 26 13:33:38 2023
    On Sunday, November 26, 2023 at 3:47:00 PM UTC-5, Daniel Pehoushek wrote:
    On Sunday, November 26, 2023 at 3:38:02 PM UTC-5, Daniel Pehoushek wrote:
    On Sunday, November 26, 2023 at 3:11:56 PM UTC-5, Transfinity wrote:
    Jim Burns schrieb am Sonntag, 26. November 2023 um 20:35:09 UTC+1:
    On 11/26/2023 5:19 AM, WM wrote:

    All visible natnumbers belong to
    a finite set which however
    is not bounded.
    I think you're thinking "ended" and
    writing "bounded"
    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.
    All visible natnumbers belong to
    an _infinite_ set which
    is not _ended_
    The set is finite at every instance, but the instances can grow without bound.
    That there must be a first disagreement
    follows from
    the predecessors of n being finitely-many.
    That is fact because n is finite.

    We cannot determine the order of dark numbers.
    Per you elsewhere, we also cannot say
    that a darkᵂᴹ number equals itself.
    We cannot prove it, but we must assume it. Otherwise dark numbers would be nonsense.
    For example,
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis\⟨0,…,n⟩| = ℵ₀
    Since ℕ_vis is finite and therefore smaller than ℵ₀, this is wrong.

    Regards, WM
    i have logic source code that uses the set 0123 for lowlevel reason on truth trees.
    i call set 0123 "light numbers".
    from the light maybe you can get dark?

    avoid negation and prosper in truth
    daniel2380+++
    that is 2 bit numbers may be called light.
    you could call 32 bit numbers light.
    with bignums you get 2^32 numbers that could be lighter than bigger numbers.
    with bignums you get 2^32 bit numbers that could be lighter than bigger numbers.
    with each less light level there is more data structure in the symbol.
    so we have degrees of lightness related to size.
    with the comparison operator we have to handle the size relation.

    does the set of natnumbers require or imply comparison with lessthan? daniel2380+++

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 27 13:07:58 2023
    On 2023-11-24 10:16:18 +0000, WM said:

    On 24.11.2023 09:29, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-23 15:44:48 +0000, WM said:

    On 23.11.2023 11:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-21 10:33:17 +0000, WM said:

    If something holds for many natural numbers except almost all natural >>>>> numbers, then it does not hold for all natural numbers. A property like the
    visibility of a natural number holds only for a finite initial segment {1, 2,
    3, ..., n}:

    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    There is no "visibility" property of natural numbers.

    You can see and choose many, not all though.

    However, it is
    true that
       ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    That cannot be true for all natural numbers, because then almost all
    (ℵo) natural numbers would follow upon all natural numbers.

    That "because" is unprovable and invalid.

    Every natural number that can be chosen as an individual belongs to a finite
    initial segment of ℕ because for every choice, ℵo natural numbers are not
    chosen.

    There is no "can be chosen" property of natural numbers. Every natural >>>> number can be chosen.

    Why don't you choose a natural number that has less than ℵo successors? >>
    The same reason you can't choose a natural number less than zero:
    there is no such natural number.

    Choose all natural number which you can choose as individuals. Collect
    them into a set X. Remove that set from ℕ. What will remain?

    The empty set.

    Mikko

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Mon Nov 27 13:05:42 2023
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:

    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:

    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X
    such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite
    initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.

    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}. For which finite subset of ℕ
    it is not true?

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Mon Nov 27 12:36:38 2023
    On 27.11.2023 12:07, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-24 10:16:18 +0000, WM said:



    Choose all natural numbers which you can choose as individuals. Collect
    them into a set X. Remove that set from ℕ. What will remain?

    The empty set.

    Do it and tell me what was the last number when you have arrived there.

    But I am sure, you will not even accomplish the following task: Choose
    and collect into the set X individually enough natural numbers to get |ℕ
    \ X| < 1000.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Mon Nov 27 12:42:17 2023
    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:

    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:

    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X
    such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be
    collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.
    In {3, 6, 9}, for instance 1 and 2 and 10^123 are missing.

    Regards, WM


    For which finite subset of ℕ
    it is not true?

    Mikko


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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Tue Nov 28 11:47:05 2023
    On 2023-11-27 11:42:17 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X such >>>>> that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite
    initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The collection {3, 6, 9} is a collection such that |ℕ \ {3, 6, 9}| = ℵo.
    It contains all natural numbers that can be collected into {3, 6, 9}.
    Therefore it is a possible X.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Tue Nov 28 11:10:25 2023
    On 28.11.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-27 11:42:17 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ >>>>>> {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a
    collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every
    finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the
    definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be
    collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The collection {3, 6, 9} is a collection such that |ℕ \ {3, 6, 9}| = ℵo.

    But it does not contain all smaller numbers.
    It contains all natural numbers that can be collected into {3, 6, 9}. Therefore it is a possible X.

    If you can identify a natnumber, then this number and all smaller
    numbers are automatically elements of X. You cannot reason about
    natnumbers as individuals which are in the difference |ℕ \ X| = ℵo. As
    soon as you identify a natnumber there, it belongs to X. Nevertheless
    the difference remains actually infinite: ℵo natnumbers. Therefore they
    are dark.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Wed Nov 29 11:26:05 2023
    On 28.11.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-27 11:42:17 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ >>>>>> {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a
    collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every
    finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the
    definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be
    collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The collection {3, 6, 9} is a collection such that |ℕ \ {3, 6, 9}| = ℵo. It contains all natural numbers that can be collected into {3, 6, 9}. Therefore it is a possible X.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo. See above.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 29 12:08:41 2023
    On 2023-11-28 10:10:25 +0000, WM said:

    On 28.11.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-27 11:42:17 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X such
    that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite >>>>> initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be
    collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The collection {3, 6, 9} is a collection such that |ℕ \ {3, 6, 9}| = ℵo.

    But it does not contain all smaller numbers.

    True but not relevant as containig all smaller nubers was not mentione
    above.

    Mikko

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 29 02:42:29 2023
    On Wednesday, November 29, 2023 at 11:30:32 AM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    In other words, ℕ_vis := {n e ℕ : |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo}.

    Then ℕ_vis = ℕ.

    Welch Überraschung, Mückenheim!

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 29 12:09:48 2023
    On 2023-11-28 10:10:25 +0000, WM said:

    On 28.11.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-27 11:42:17 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X such
    that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite >>>>> initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be
    collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The collection {3, 6, 9} is a collection such that |ℕ \ {3, 6, 9}| = ℵo.

    But it does not contain all smaller numbers.

    True but not relevant as containig all smaller nubers was not mentione
    above.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Fritz Feldhase on Wed Nov 29 12:39:57 2023
    Fritz Feldhase schrieb am Mittwoch, 29. November 2023 um 11:42:32 UTC+1:
    On Wednesday, November 29, 2023 at 11:30:32 AM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.
    In other words, ℕ_vis := {n e ℕ : |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo}.

    Then ℕ_vis = ℕ.


    For matheologians who claim the existence of negative fractions this may
    appear so.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 29 04:01:27 2023
    On Wednesday, November 29, 2023 at 12:40:31 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:
    Fritz Feldhase schrieb am Mittwoch, 29. November 2023 um 11:42:32 UTC+1:
    On Wednesday, November 29, 2023 at 11:30:32 AM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    In other words, ℕ_vis := {n e ℕ : |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo}.

    Then ℕ_vis = ℕ.

    For <bla>

    So you claim that there is a natural number n such that |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo does not hold?

    FASCINATING!

    Hint: There is no such natural number.

    Proof by induction: |ℕ \ {1}| = ℵo (since |ℕ| = ℵo). If |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo then |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n, n+1}| = ℵo. qed

    Now An e ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo implies {n e ℕ : |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo} = ℕ, you know. Hence ℕ_vis = ℕ.

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 29 04:15:46 2023
    "Visible evidence for dark natural numbers" (WM)

    Hint: In mathematics we prefer "provable evidence" (->proof).

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Nov 29 19:07:35 2023
    On 2023-11-29 10:26:05 +0000, WM said:

    On 28.11.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-27 11:42:17 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Montag, 27. November 2023 um 12:05:47 UTC+1:
    On 2023-11-26 11:13:19 +0000, WM said:
    On 26.11.2023 11:56, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-25 17:29:23 +0000, WM said:
    On 25.11.2023 01:26, Ben Bacarisse wrote:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of all natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ \ {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo and that can be collected into a collection X such
    that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is true about every finite subset of ℕ

    No, it is not true for every finite subset, but only for every finite >>>>> initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}. Note the "all" in the definition.
    It is also true for for example {3, 6, 9}.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of _all_ natural numbers n ... that can be
    collected into a collection X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The collection {3, 6, 9} is a collection such that |ℕ \ {3, 6, 9}| = ℵo. >> It contains all natural numbers that can be collected into {3, 6, 9}.
    Therefore it is a possible X.

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ
    \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo. See above.

    Seeing above, it is not, just those that can be collected into a collection
    X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    The ollection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo is N.

    Mikko

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  • From Fritz Feldhase@21:1/5 to Mikko on Wed Nov 29 11:00:05 2023
    On Wednesday, November 29, 2023 at 6:07:40 PM UTC+1, Mikko wrote:

    The collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo is IN.

    @Mückenheim: Es ist nicht so schwer: Die collection (Menge, Klasse) aller natürliche Zahlen n, für die ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo gilt, ist gleich IN, weil für jede natürliche Zahl n |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo gilt.

    Actually, the following is a trivial set theoretic theorem:

    An e IN: |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo. (*)

    It implies {n e IN : |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo} = IN.

    _____________________________________________________________

    Another proof for (*):

    Proof (by contradiction): Assume that |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo does not hold for all natural numbers. This means that the set M = {n e IN: ~|IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo} is not empty (since there are natural numbers n such that ~|IN \ {1, 2, 3,
    ..., n}| = ℵo holds). Since IN is well-ordered and M c IN, M =/= { }, there is a smallest element in M. Let k be this smallest element. Then ~|IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., k}| = ℵo. In other words: |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., k}| =/= ℵo. Now |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., k}
    | can only be a cardinal number which smaller than ℵo (trivial), hence a natural number, say m. This means that |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., k}| = m. But then (clearly) IN = {1, 2, 3, ..., k} u {n_1, ..., n_m} (with n_1, ..., n_m e IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., k},
    where those n_i are pairwise distinct). This would imply |IN| = k + m. Hence IN would be finite. Contradiction! (Since in the context of set theory/classical mathematics IN is an infinite set.)

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Wed Nov 29 22:00:22 2023
    On 29.11.2023 18:07, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-29 10:26:05 +0000, WM said:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ >> \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo. See above.

    Seeing above, it is not, just those that can be collected into a collection
    X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is the definition.

    The collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo is N.

    Since |ℕ \ ℕ| < ℵo, ℕ is not X.

    Simply try to collect definable numbers such that |ℕ \ X| < ℵo. Fail.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Fritz Feldhase on Wed Nov 29 22:09:01 2023
    On 29.11.2023 20:00, Fritz Feldhase wrote:
    Es ist nicht so schwer: Die collection (Menge, Klasse) aller natürliche Zahlen n, für die ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo gilt, ist gleich IN, weil für jede natürliche Zahl n |IN \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo gilt.

    Unsinn. Aber leichter mit Stammbrüchen zu zeigen.

    Für jedes eps > 0 gibt es ℵo kleinere SB.
    Es gibt aber überhaupt keinen, der kleiner als alle Punkte in (0, 1] ist.
    Also gilt nicht für alle x > 0, dass ℵo kleinere SB existieren. Denn
    alle x > 0 sind alle Punkte in (0, oo), und es wären ℵo SB kleiner als
    alle Punkte des Intervalls (0, 1]. Das ist offenbar Unsinn.

    Gruß, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Thu Nov 30 12:53:02 2023
    On 2023-11-29 21:00:22 +0000, WM said:

    On 29.11.2023 18:07, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-29 10:26:05 +0000, WM said:

    ℕ_vis is the collection of ***all*** natural numbers n that satisfy |ℕ >>> \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo. See above.

    Seeing above, it is not, just those that can be collected into a collection >> X such that |ℕ \ X| = ℵo.

    That is the definition.

    Which one? What is the other?

    Simply try to collect definable numbers such that |ℕ \ X| < ℵo. Fail.

    Therefore, there is no X that could be used for the definition of ℕ_vis,
    so ℕ_vis is still undefined.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Thu Nov 30 16:41:40 2023
    On 30.11.2023 11:53, Mikko wrote:

    Therefore, there is no X that could be used for the definition of ℕ_vis,
    so ℕ_vis is still undefined.

    ℕ_vis contains numbers which have ℵo successors. ℕ contains all numbers, also these successors. Therefore there is definitely a difference.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Fritz Feldhase on Fri Dec 1 13:38:38 2023
    On 30.11.2023 18:57, Fritz Feldhase wrote:
    On Thursday, November 30, 2023 at 4:41:45 PM UTC+1, WM wrote:

    ℕ_vis contains numbers which have ℵo successors.
    ℕ contains all numbers, also these successors.

    In der Tat. Allerdings ist auch ℕ als ℕ_vis MÖGLICH, denn alle Zahlen in ℕ haben ℵo successors.

    Falsch. Here is a proof that an intelligent person will easier understand: Between every definable unit fraction 1/n and 0, there are ℵo smaller
    unit fractions. You cannot reduce this amount to less than ℵo. You
    cannot distinguish ℵo of them. But they must exist in the interval (0,
    1]. So they are not an empty set, but existing.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Sun Dec 3 12:13:24 2023
    On 03.12.2023 12:00, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-30 15:41:40 +0000, WM said:

    On 30.11.2023 11:53, Mikko wrote:

    Therefore, there is no X that could be used for the definition of ℕ_vis, >>> so ℕ_vis is still undefined.

    ℕ_vis contains numbers which have ℵo successors. ℕ contains all
    numbers, also these successors. Therefore there is definitely a
    difference.

    Which of those numbers which have ℵo successors are contained in ℕ_vis?

    What we can say is: not all. It is possible to define more and more such numbers. The prime numbers are a good example. There are many known
    prime numbers P_vis, but we may find more and more without end,
    increasing P_vis. Nevertheless almost all will remain unknown forever.

    Does ℕ_vis contain anything else?

    No, ℕ_vis contains only natural numbers n which can be used as
    individuals and have finite initial segments {1, 2, 3, ..., n}.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 3 13:00:04 2023
    On 2023-11-30 15:41:40 +0000, WM said:

    On 30.11.2023 11:53, Mikko wrote:

    Therefore, there is no X that could be used for the definition of ℕ_vis, >> so ℕ_vis is still undefined.

    ℕ_vis contains numbers which have ℵo successors. ℕ contains all numbers, also these successors. Therefore there is definitely a
    difference.

    Which of thos numbers which have ℵo successors are contained in ℕ_vis?
    Does ℕ_vis contain anything else?

    Mikko

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 3 18:10:51 2023
    On 2023-12-03 11:13:24 +0000, WM said:

    On 03.12.2023 12:00, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-30 15:41:40 +0000, WM said:

    On 30.11.2023 11:53, Mikko wrote:

    Therefore, there is no X that could be used for the definition of ℕ_vis, >>>> so ℕ_vis is still undefined.

    ℕ_vis contains numbers which have ℵo successors. ℕ contains all
    numbers, also these successors. Therefore there is definitely a
    difference.

    Which of those numbers which have ℵo successors are contained in ℕ_vis?

    What we can say is: not all.

    So ℕ_vis is some unknown subset of ℕ. Not useful.

    Mikko

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to Heinrich on Mon Dec 4 07:27:52 2023
    On 12/4/23 3:22 AM, Heinrich wrote:
    Mikko schrieb am Sonntag, 3. Dezember 2023 um 17:10:55 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-03 11:13:24 +0000, WM said:

    On 03.12.2023 12:00, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-11-30 15:41:40 +0000, WM said:

    On 30.11.2023 11:53, Mikko wrote:

    Therefore, there is no X that could be used for the definition of ℕ_vis,
    so ℕ_vis is still undefined.

    ℕ_vis contains numbers which have ℵo successors. ℕ contains all >>>>> numbers, also these successors. Therefore there is definitely a
    difference.

    Which of those numbers which have ℵo successors are contained in ℕ_vis?

    What we can say is: not all.
    So ℕ_vis is some unknown subset of ℕ. Not useful.

    It is the collection (a set is invariable, but ℕ_vis is variable like the collection of known prime numbers or the collection of past days or the collection of numbers you can count to (those you can count to, not those you claim you could count to))
    described by the Peano axioms. Very useful for mathematics.

    Regards, WM

    If "visible" or "dark" are merely matters of has (not can) the number
    been expressed individually, then they are just transitory sets that
    don't actually define a logical property of the numbers, just our
    "knowledge" of them.

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    Your "dark numbers" are not numbers that CAN'T be used individually, but numbers that currently HAVEN'T been used individually (YET).

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Mon Dec 4 16:07:17 2023
    On 04.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    The difference should be easily understandable here: You can empty ℕ by subtracting all natural numbers collectively
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.
    You cannot empty ℕ by subtracting as many numbers as you can define individually
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    Your "dark numbers" are not numbers that CAN'T be used individually, but numbers that currently HAVEN'T been used individually (YET).

    You are wrong. See above. Or consider the prime numbers. Never all prime numbers will be known. Or consider the passed days. Never ll days will
    have been passed. There are always almost all remaining not used,
    whatever you try.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Fritz Feldhase on Mon Dec 4 16:20:40 2023
    Fritz Feldhase schrieb am Montag, 4. Dezember 2023 um 14:07:22 UTC+1:

    There ARE infinitely many prime numbers, though almost all of them
    may be "dark" (forever).

    Dark numbers (not "dark as primes" but really dark) can't appear as
    indices in any sequence like the enumerated fractions.

    There's a certain dark number. Now - in a moment - I will tell you
    its /numeral/ (in decimal form).

    Nevertheless, most, almost all will remain dark, whatever you try - like
    the sequence of days.

    In other words, even "dark" numbers are ordered,

    However we cannot discern their order. Otherwise we could find the unit fraction which makes NUF(1/n) = 1 or the first matrix element not
    covered by shuffling all X in
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    ...
    or the first finite endsegment {n, n+1, n+2, ...}.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Dec 4 20:50:05 2023
    On 12/4/23 10:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 04.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are
    potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    The difference should be easily understandable here: You can empty ℕ by subtracting all natural numbers collectively
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.
    You cannot empty ℕ by subtracting as many numbers as you can define individually
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    Your "dark numbers" are not numbers that CAN'T be used individually,
    but numbers that currently HAVEN'T been used individually (YET).

    You are wrong. See above. Or consider the prime numbers. Never all prime numbers will be known. Or consider the passed days. Never ll days will
    have been passed. There are always almost all remaining not used,
    whatever you try.

    Regards, WM


    But "Known" is different than describable, or usable individually.

    Being "Known" doesn't change the properties of the number itself, as it
    doesn't care if you know about it.

    You are just stuck in a stupid category error.

    All Natural Numbers are "Visible", and none of them "Dark" on intrinsic properties.

    Because your mind is too small, you just can't see them, so they are
    "Dark" TO YOU, not themselves.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Tue Dec 5 11:07:44 2023
    On 05.12.2023 02:50, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/4/23 10:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 04.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are
    potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    The difference should be easily understandable here: You can empty ℕ
    by subtracting all natural numbers collectively
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.
    You cannot empty ℕ by subtracting as many numbers as you can define
    individually
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    Being "Known" doesn't change the properties of the number itself, as it doesn't care if you know about it.

    But it changes the facilities to handle them.

    All Natural Numbers are "Visible",

    Then empty the set ℕ by subtracting the visible individuals {1, 2, 3,
    ..., n} (all smaller numbers than n are automatically visible):

    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}|

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 5 07:31:21 2023
    On 12/5/23 5:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 05.12.2023 02:50, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/4/23 10:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 04.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are
    potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    The difference should be easily understandable here: You can empty ℕ
    by subtracting all natural numbers collectively
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.
    You cannot empty ℕ by subtracting as many numbers as you can define
    individually
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    Being "Known" doesn't change the properties of the number itself, as
    it doesn't care if you know about it.

    But it changes the facilities to handle them.

    No, the facilities always existed, if your logic system actual can't
    handle the Natural Numbers.

    Your problem seems to be that you are using operations that are bounded,
    but the Natural Number are unbounded (they are each finite, but no upper
    limit to them) so bounded operations can't handle them.


    All Natural Numbers are "Visible",

    Then empty the set ℕ by subtracting the visible individuals {1, 2, 3,
    ..., n} (all smaller numbers than n are automatically visible):

    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}|

    Regards, WM


    It happens when you you consider that ℕ, and thus n is unbounded. You
    logic is bounded, and thus can't handle ℕ.

    Your "dark" numbers are just the number that live in the space between
    the bounded subset of the Natural Numbers that you logic can handle, and
    the Unbound set that they actually are.

    They are a figment of the failure of your logic system to actually be
    able to handle the Natural Numbers, they do not exist in a logic system
    that can actually support the natural numbers.

    Show me how you create the actual set ℕ with your system? Your
    operations just don't have what is needed. IF they did, you could use
    that exact same tool to create ℕ_vis, and thus show that all Natural
    Numbers were visible.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Wed Dec 6 18:34:31 2023
    On 05.12.2023 13:31, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/5/23 5:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 05.12.2023 02:50, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/4/23 10:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 04.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are
    potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    The difference should be easily understandable here: You can empty ℕ >>>> by subtracting all natural numbers collectively
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.
    You cannot empty ℕ by subtracting as many numbers as you can define
    individually
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    Your problem seems to be that you are using operations that are bounded,
    but the Natural Number are unbounded (they are each finite, but no upper limit to them) so bounded operations can't handle them.

    Every handled number belongs to a finite set. The potentially infinite
    set is not bounded by a finite number.

    Your "dark" numbers are just the number that live in the space between
    the

    not finitely

    bounded subset of the Natural Numbers that you logic can handle, and
    the Unbound set that they actually are.

    Show me how you create the actual set ℕ with your system?

    That set cannot be created. It must be assumed to exist. Perhaps it does
    not exist at all.

    Only the visible numbers can be created by induction: with n also n+1 is visible. ℵo always remain dark - if they exist at all.

    Your
    operations just don't have what is needed. IF they did, you could use
    that exact same tool to create ℕ_vis, and thus show that all Natural Numbers were visible.

    Show a number that has less than ℵo successors. Show a unit fraction,
    that has less than ℵo successors. Such unit fractions do exist, but
    cannot be shown.

    Regards, WM



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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 6 20:07:39 2023
    On 12/6/23 12:34 PM, WM wrote:
    On 05.12.2023 13:31, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/5/23 5:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 05.12.2023 02:50, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/4/23 10:07 AM, WM wrote:
    On 04.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:

    EVERY Natural number could be used individually, so all are
    potentially visible, and none are essentially dark.

    The difference should be easily understandable here: You can empty
    ℕ by subtracting all natural numbers collectively
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.
    You cannot empty ℕ by subtracting as many numbers as you can define >>>>> individually
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.

    Your problem seems to be that you are using operations that are
    bounded, but the Natural Number are unbounded (they are each finite,
    but no upper limit to them) so bounded operations can't handle them.

    Every handled number belongs to a finite set. The potentially infinite
    set is not bounded by a finite number.

    Right, but since the upper "bound" for that "finite set" isn't bounded,
    the set it represent N_vis, becomes unbounded and equal to N.


    Your "dark" numbers are just the number that live in the space between
    the

    not finitely

    bounded subset of the Natural Numbers that you logic can handle, and
    the Unbound set that they actually are.

    Show me how you create the actual set ℕ with your system?

    That set cannot be created. It must be assumed to exist. Perhaps it does
    not exist at all.

    So, if your system can't create N, it can't create your dark numbers, so
    they don't actually exist.


    Only the visible numbers can be created by induction: with n also n+1 is visible. ℵo always remain dark - if they exist at all.

    Yes, ℵo is not a "Natural Number" but oly the value for the cardinality
    of the Natural Numbers and there limit.

    Anything less than it is what you call "visible", so there is no "dark"
    number.


    Your operations just don't have what is needed. IF they did, you could
    use that exact same tool to create ℕ_vis, and thus show that all
    Natural Numbers were visible.

    Show a number that has less than ℵo successors. Show a unit fraction,
    that has less than ℵo successors. Such unit fractions do exist, but
    cannot be shown.

    You are talking BOUNDED operations, which don't prove anything abput the
    full Natural Numbers. As you admitted, you can't create the Natural
    Numbers in your system, so the problem isn't with the "Natural Numbrs"
    but your logic system.


    Regards, WM




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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Thu Dec 7 16:58:59 2023
    On 07.12.2023 02:07, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/6/23 12:34 PM, WM wrote:

    Every handled number belongs to a finite set. The potentially infinite
    set is not bounded by a finite number.

    Right, but since the upper "bound" for that "finite set" isn't bounded,
    the set it represent N_vis, becomes unbounded and equal to N.

    The last part is wrong. Unbounded is correct. Dark numbers can be made
    visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    ℕ_vis is unbounded. But ℕ is bounded by ω
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0, like the unit fractions are bounded by zero.

    Show me how you create the actual set ℕ with your system?

    That set cannot be created. It must be assumed to exist. Perhaps it
    does not exist at all.

    So, if your system can't create N, it can't create your dark numbers, so
    they don't actually exist.

    They do only exist if Cantor was right postulating actual infinity.


    Only the visible numbers can be created by induction: with n also n+1
    is visible. ℵo always remain dark - if they exist at all.

    Yes, ℵo is not a "Natural Number" but oly the value for the cardinality
    of the Natural Numbers and there limit.

    Anything less than it is what you call "visible", so there is no "dark" number.

    That is wrong. It would mean in the parallel case that any unit fraction
    0 is visible. But every visible unit fraction has ℵo smaller unit
    fractions.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 7 21:40:47 2023
    On 12/7/23 10:58 AM, WM wrote:
    On 07.12.2023 02:07, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/6/23 12:34 PM, WM wrote:

    Every handled number belongs to a finite set. The potentially
    infinite set is not bounded by a finite number.

    Right, but since the upper "bound" for that "finite set" isn't
    bounded, the set it represent N_vis, becomes unbounded and equal to N.

    The last part is wrong. Unbounded is correct. Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    ℕ_vis is unbounded. But ℕ is bounded by ω
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0, like the unit fractions are bounded by zero.
    ℕ is not bounded by ω, since ω is not a member of ℕ. It might be a
    limit, but not a bound.


    Show me how you create the actual set ℕ with your system?

    That set cannot be created. It must be assumed to exist. Perhaps it
    does not exist at all.

    So, if your system can't create N, it can't create your dark numbers,
    so they don't actually exist.

    They do only exist if Cantor was right postulating actual infinity.

    No, because if your system can create the Naturals, it can describe all
    of them, thus nothing is left to be dark.



    Only the visible numbers can be created by induction: with n also n+1
    is visible. ℵo always remain dark - if they exist at all.

    Yes, ℵo is not a "Natural Number" but oly the value for the
    cardinality of the Natural Numbers and there limit.

    Anything less than it is what you call "visible", so there is no
    "dark" number.

    That is wrong. It would mean in the parallel case that any unit fraction
    0 is visible. But every visible unit fraction has ℵo smaller unit
    fractions.

    Right, which are all visible, just like all the high Natural Numbers.


    Regards, WM


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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Fri Dec 8 09:57:16 2023
    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:

    On 07.12.2023 02:07, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/6/23 12:34 PM, WM wrote:

    Every handled number belongs to a finite set. The potentially infinite
    set is not bounded by a finite number.

    Right, but since the upper "bound" for that "finite set" isn't bounded,
    the set it represent N_vis, becomes unbounded and equal to N.

    The last part is wrong. Unbounded is correct. Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound:
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ_vis \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Fri Dec 8 16:08:45 2023
    On 08.12.2023 08:57, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers can be made
    visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound:

    There are no visible dark numbers.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Fritz Feldhase on Fri Dec 8 16:27:26 2023
    Fritz Feldhase schrieb am Freitag, 8. Dezember 2023 um 10:23:11 UTC+1:

    Hint: ∀n ∈ ℕ: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Not for those always remaing.

    Look: All unit fractions have distances. Therefore NUF(x) pauses after
    each one. And never more than one are added simultaneously. Therefore
    there is a smallest one. It has no smaller one, let alone ℵo.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Fri Dec 8 16:16:27 2023
    On 08.12.2023 03:40, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/7/23 10:58 AM, WM wrote:

    ℕ_vis is unbounded. But ℕ is bounded by ω
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0, like the unit fractions are bounded by zero.
    ℕ is not bounded by ω, since ω is not a member of ℕ. It might be a limit, but not a bound.

    ℕ is in the same way restricted to less than ω, as the set of unit
    fractions is restricted to more than zero. Call it as you like.


    They do only exist if Cantor was right postulating actual infinity.

    No, because if your system can create the Naturals, it can describe all
    of them, thus nothing is left to be dark.

    You are wrong. Try to describe the smallest unit fraction.

    Note: All unit fractions have distances. Therefore the increase of the
    function Number of Unit Fractions larger than zero, NUF(x) pauses after
    each one. And never more than one are added simultaneously.

    That is wrong. It would mean in the parallel case that any unit
    fraction  > 0 is visible. But every visible unit fraction has ℵo
    smaller unit fractions.

    Right, which are all visible, just like all the high Natural Numbers.

    Prove it by naming the smallest one. In fact infinitely many smallest
    ones are dark.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to If your logic on Fri Dec 8 12:35:13 2023
    On 12/8/23 10:16 AM, WM wrote:
    On 08.12.2023 03:40, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/7/23 10:58 AM, WM wrote:

    ℕ_vis is unbounded. But ℕ is bounded by ω
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0, like the unit fractions are bounded by zero.
    ℕ is not bounded by ω, since ω is not a member of ℕ. It might be a
    limit, but not a bound.

    ℕ is in the same way restricted to less than ω, as the set of unit fractions is restricted to more than zero. Call it as you like.

    But it is unboundedly restricted, so there is no "end" (or bound) on
    that side. (note ω doesn't qualify as a bound, as it isn't a member of
    the set, it is a limit, not a bound).

    Your logic tries to express



    They do only exist if Cantor was right postulating actual infinity.

    No, because if your system can create the Naturals, it can describe
    all of them, thus nothing is left to be dark.

    You are wrong. Try to describe the smallest unit fraction.

    Note: All unit fractions have distances. Therefore the increase of the function Number of Unit Fractions larger than zero, NUF(x) pauses after
    each one. And never more than one are added simultaneously.

    That is wrong. It would mean in the parallel case that any unit
    fraction  > 0 is visible. But every visible unit fraction has ℵo
    smaller unit fractions.

    Right, which are all visible, just like all the high Natural Numbers.

    Prove it by naming the smallest one. In fact infinitely many smallest
    ones are dark.

    You can't name that which doesn't exist.

    If your logic says there is a smallest unit fraction, then it is just incorrect.


    Regards, WM


    You just don't seem to understand Bounded vs Unbounded sets.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Dec 9 11:55:40 2023
    On 08.12.2023 18:35, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/8/23 10:16 AM, WM wrote:

    Right, which are all visible, just like all the high Natural Numbers.

    Prove it by naming the smallest one. In fact infinitely many smallest
    ones are dark.

    You can't name that which doesn't exist.

    But you claim that for every unit fraction ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions
    exist. Why don't you name them, if all are existing? They are existing
    between your named one and zero.

    If your logic says there is a smallest unit fraction, then it is just incorrect.

    If your logic says that there are ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions but they
    can't be named because they are not existing, then your logic is incorrect.

    If your logic says that there is no smallest unit fraction, then it is
    in contradiction with mathematics which even a Pisa-pupil should master:
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0 . Note the universal quantifier which does not admit ***any*** exception.

    You just don't seem to understand Bounded vs Unbounded sets.

    The set of unit fractions is bounded by 0 and 1.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 9 07:27:21 2023
    On 12/9/23 5:55 AM, WM wrote:
    On 08.12.2023 18:35, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/8/23 10:16 AM, WM wrote:

    Right, which are all visible, just like all the high Natural Numbers.

    Prove it by naming the smallest one. In fact infinitely many smallest
    ones are dark.

    You can't name that which doesn't exist.

    But you claim that for every unit fraction ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions exist. Why don't you name them, if all are existing? They are existing between your named one and zero.

    Ok, for the unit fraction 1/n, the unit fractions smaller than it are:

    { 1/(n+1), 1/(n+2), 1/(n+3) ....}

    Of course we can't name them ALL individually, as that is an unbounded operation which your "naming" is defined in a way that is bounded.

    Note, to show that something isn't the "smallest", I don't neeed to name
    ALL the points smaller, but just one, and that can easily be done.

    YOU are the one using the wrong qualifiers.


    If your logic says there is a smallest unit fraction, then it is just
    incorrect.

    If your logic says that there are ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions but they can't be named because they are not existing, then your logic is incorrect.

    But YOU are the one that says they are not existing, so you admit that
    your logic is incorrect.

    The ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions exist, and each one is individually
    nameable, we just can't name the full set, as "naming" is a bounded
    operation while the set is unbounded.


    If your logic says that there is no smallest unit fraction, then it is
    in contradiction with mathematics which even a Pisa-pupil should master:
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0 . Note the universal quantifier which does not admit ***any*** exception.

    That requirement says nothing about being "first"

    There is no finite distance x that we can't get a d_n < x, so we can
    always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Thus, there is no "first" point in the set of unit fractions.

    You are just using inappropriate logic to make your claims.


    You just don't seem to understand Bounded vs Unbounded sets.

    The set of unit fractions is bounded by 0 and 1.

    And, since 0 isn't a unit fraction, it isn't a "bound" but a limit.


    Regards, WM



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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Dec 9 17:27:53 2023
    On 09.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/9/23 5:55 AM, WM wrote:

    But you claim that for every unit fraction ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions
    exist. Why don't you name them, if all are existing? They are existing
    between your named one and zero.

    Ok, for the unit fraction 1/n, the unit fractions smaller than it are:

    { 1/(n+1), 1/(n+2), 1/(n+3) ....}

    They all have ℵo smaller unit fractions. Name those which have less.
    Don't less than ℵo exist in the set of ℵo?

    Of course we can't name them ALL individually, as that is an unbounded operation which your "naming" is defined in a way that is bounded.

    Note, to show that something isn't the "smallest", I don't neeed to name
    ALL the points smaller, but just one, and that can easily be done.

    You claim that ℵo are smaller and can be found. But you can't find any
    of the smaller ones which have less than ℵo smaller. Therefore your
    claim is invalid. The ℵo smaller ones are dark and therefore cannpt be reduced by individual choice, only collectively.
    If your logic says that there are ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions but they
    can't be named because they are not existing, then your logic is
    incorrect.

    But YOU are the one that says they are not existing,

    They are existing. They can be removed by using the complete set, but
    not individually. They are dark.
    The ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions exist, and each one is individually nameable, we just can't name the full set, as "naming" is a bounded
    operation while the set is unbounded.

    Then name the last. You can subtract them completely.
    If your logic says that there is no smallest unit fraction, then it is
    in contradiction with mathematics which even a Pisa-pupil should master:
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0 . Note the universal quantifier which >> does not admit ***any*** exception.

    That requirement says nothing about being "first"

    It says that each one sits at its own point, followed by other points
    than unit fractions.

    There is no finite distance x that we can't get a d_n < x

    The first distances are dark.

    , so we can
    always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Not any without ℵo smaller unit fractions. But you can't removes them individually. Only collectively. They are dark.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to But never on Sat Dec 9 11:43:03 2023
    On 12/9/23 11:27 AM, WM wrote:
    On 09.12.2023 13:27, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/9/23 5:55 AM, WM wrote:

    But you claim that for every unit fraction ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions >>> exist. Why don't you name them, if all are existing? They are
    existing between your named one and zero.

    Ok, for the unit fraction 1/n, the unit fractions smaller than it are:

    { 1/(n+1), 1/(n+2), 1/(n+3) ....}

    They all have ℵo smaller unit fractions. Name those which have less.
    Don't less than ℵo exist in the set of ℵo?

    Why do they need to?

    This is the nature of Unbounded sets, they don't have a bound.


    Of course we can't name them ALL individually, as that is an unbounded
    operation which your "naming" is defined in a way that is bounded.

    Note, to show that something isn't the "smallest", I don't neeed to
    name ALL the points smaller, but just one, and that can easily be done.

    You claim that ℵo are smaller and can be found. But you can't find any
    of the smaller ones which have less than ℵo smaller. Therefore your
    claim is invalid. The ℵo smaller ones are dark and therefore cannpt be reduced by individual choice, only collectively.

    Because your requirement is a bounded requirement on an unbounded set.

    If is just illogical.

    If your logic says that there are ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions but they >>> can't be named because they are not existing, then your logic is
    incorrect.

    But YOU are the one that says they are not existing,

    They are existing. They can be removed by using the complete set, but
    not individually. They are dark.

    But none of them actually exist.

    Again, your "darkness" is an artifact of bad logic, trying to use
    bounded logic on an unbounded set. Your logic can't generate the Natural Numbers, so can't generate the set of describable Natural Numbers, which
    is the full set.

    The ℵ₀ smaller unit fractions exist, and each one is individually
    nameable, we just can't name the full set, as "naming" is a bounded
    operation while the set is unbounded.

    Then name the last. You can subtract them completely.

    There is no last. Again, you talk in Bounded terms about something that
    is Unbounded, showing your "logic" to be "illogical"

    If your logic says that there is no smallest unit fraction, then it
    is in contradiction with mathematics which even a Pisa-pupil should
    master:
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0 . Note the universal quantifier which >>> does not admit ***any*** exception.

    That requirement says nothing about being "first"

    It says that each one sits at its own point, followed by other points
    than unit fractions.

    But never says that one of them must be the smallest distance.


    There is no finite distance x that we can't get a d_n < x

    The first distances are dark.

    Nope, just Unbouneded.


    , so we can always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Not any without ℵo smaller unit fractions. But you can't removes them individually. Only collectively. They are dark.


    Which is just saying you can't remove the Unbounded set of the Natural
    Number, or their inverses, the Unit Fractions, by doing a Bounded operation.

    Since the Natural Numbers themselves are Unbounded, that is obvious.

    That every Natural Number is "describable" is also an obvious fact, as
    each one, individual, as a finite value.

    Your "dark" numbers don't exist, but are only a "figment" of trying to
    use Bounded logic on an Unbounded set.

    Every Natural Number is describable, there are no undescribable Natural Numbers, but to try to describe them all at once, is an unbounded operation.

    No "Dark" numbers, only a misapplication of logic to an unbounded set.

    Regards, WM


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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sun Dec 10 09:58:55 2023
    On 09.12.2023 17:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/9/23 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    , so we can always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Not any without ℵo smaller unit fractions. But you can't removes them
    individually. Only collectively. They are dark.

    Which is just saying you can't remove the Unbounded set of the Natural Number, or their inverses, the Unit Fractions, by doing a Bounded
    operation.

    This means the same as "dark numbers are existing and cannot be removed individually".

    Since the Natural Numbers themselves are Unbounded, that is obvious.

    It is, but most people don't understand it.

    That every Natural Number is "describable" is also an obvious fact, as
    each one, individual, as a finite value.

    Then you could describe and remove until nothing remains.

    Your "dark" numbers don't exist, but are only a "figment" of trying to
    use Bounded logic on an Unbounded set.

    Every Natural Number is describable, there are no undescribable Natural Numbers, but to try to describe them all at once, is an unbounded
    operation.

    It is impossible to perform. That proves the existence of dark numbers.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 10 12:35:25 2023
    On 2023-12-08 15:08:45 +0000, WM said:

    On 08.12.2023 08:57, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2,
    3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound:

    There are no visible dark numbers.

    Without a definition of "dark number" that cannot be proven.

    But what is the significance of ∀n ∈ Y: |X \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo ?

    Mikko

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 10 07:28:29 2023
    On 12/10/23 3:58 AM, WM wrote:
    On 09.12.2023 17:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/9/23 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    , so we can always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Not any without ℵo smaller unit fractions. But you can't removes them
    individually. Only collectively. They are dark.

    Which is just saying you can't remove the Unbounded set of the Natural
    Number, or their inverses, the Unit Fractions, by doing a Bounded
    operation.

    This means the same as "dark numbers are existing and cannot be removed individually".

    No, because no Natural Number is itself unbounded, so no Natural Number
    is dark.

    Boundedness is a property of SETS, not NUMBERS.


    Since the Natural Numbers themselves are Unbounded, that is obvious.

    It is, but most people don't understand it.

    You don't seem to understand it.




    That every Natural Number is "describable" is also an obvious fact, as
    each one, individual, as a finite value.

    Then you could describe and remove until nothing remains.

    But that is a SET operation. The SET of Natural Numbers is unbounded, so
    can not be


    Your "dark" numbers don't exist, but are only a "figment" of trying to
    use Bounded logic on an Unbounded set.

    Every Natural Number is describable, there are no undescribable
    Natural Numbers, but to try to describe them all at once, is an
    unbounded operation.

    It is impossible to perform. That proves the existence of dark numbers.

    Nope. Again, the SET of Natural Numbers is Unbounded, but each
    individual Natural Number is finite (and thus part of a Bounded set)

    We can individual describe only finite things (since we are finite) so
    we CAN describe ANY Natural Number, so no Natural Number is "Dark".

    You are just confusing the SET of Natural Numbers for the individual
    elements of the set.

    I guess, your concept of "Set Theory" is incapable of handling unbounded
    sets.


    Regards, WM


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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Mon Dec 11 12:20:21 2023
    On 10.12.2023 11:35, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-08 15:08:45 +0000, WM said:

    On 08.12.2023 08:57, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound:

    There are no visible dark numbers.

    Without a definition of "dark number" that cannot be proven.

    Dark numbers are well defined.

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually) "defined"
    or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender and
    receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial segment
    to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark natural numbers.

    Since it is impossible to reduce the undefined numbers to less than ℵo, almost are natural numbers are dark and will remain dark.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Mon Dec 11 12:30:27 2023
    On 10.12.2023 13:28, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/10/23 3:58 AM, WM wrote:
    On 09.12.2023 17:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/9/23 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    , so we can always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Not any without ℵo smaller unit fractions. But you can't removes
    them individually. Only collectively. They are dark.

    Which is just saying you can't remove the Unbounded set of the
    Natural Number, or their inverses, the Unit Fractions, by doing a
    Bounded operation.

    This means the same as "dark numbers are existing and cannot be
    removed individually".

    No, because no Natural Number is itself unbounded, so no Natural Number
    is dark.

    Every natural number is finite. Every set of individually defined
    natnumbers is finite.

    Boundedness is a property of SETS, not NUMBERS.

    Of course.

    That every Natural Number is "describable" is also an obvious fact,
    as each one, individual, as a finite value.

    Then you could describe and remove until nothing remains.

    But that is a SET operation. The SET of Natural Numbers is unbounded, so
    can not be

    That is just what I said.
    The set of numbers smaller than 1000 can be emptied by individual
    operations. An actually infinite set cannot be emptied by individual operations. The remainder is called dark.

    Nope. Again, the SET of Natural Numbers is Unbounded, but each
    individual Natural Number is finite (and thus part of a Bounded set)

    The set consists of only natnumbers. Thoese which can be used as
    individuals leave almost all natnumbers as remainder.

    We can individual describe only finite things (since we are finite) so
    we CAN describe ANY Natural Number, so no Natural Number is "Dark".

    Wrong. The unit fractions have a first element because they all have
    finite distances. But you cannot describe it.

    You are just confusing the SET of Natural Numbers for the individual
    elements of the set.

    The set is nothing but its members.

    I guess, your concept of "Set Theory" is incapable of handling unbounded sets.

    It is better than all others because they fail to distinguish potential
    and actual infinity.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Dec 11 07:19:11 2023
    On 12/11/23 6:30 AM, WM wrote:
    On 10.12.2023 13:28, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/10/23 3:58 AM, WM wrote:
    On 09.12.2023 17:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/9/23 11:27 AM, WM wrote:

    , so we can always find an increment that will fit into the gap.

    Not any without ℵo smaller unit fractions. But you can't removes
    them individually. Only collectively. They are dark.

    Which is just saying you can't remove the Unbounded set of the
    Natural Number, or their inverses, the Unit Fractions, by doing a
    Bounded operation.

    This means the same as "dark numbers are existing and cannot be
    removed individually".

    No, because no Natural Number is itself unbounded, so no Natural
    Number is dark.

    Every natural number is finite. Every set of individually defined
    natnumbers is finite.

    Right, but not all sets of Natural Numbers are individually defined,
    even though every Natual Number can be.

    The set has a higher size than any individual Natuaral Numbers, because
    their values are unbounded.


    Boundedness is a property of SETS, not NUMBERS.

    Of course.

    So the fact that we can't empty the set in a boundd number of steps,
    doesn't mean that not all Natural Numbers are finite, and thus
    individually defined.


    That every Natural Number is "describable" is also an obvious fact,
    as each one, individual, as a finite value.

    Then you could describe and remove until nothing remains.

    But that is a SET operation. The SET of Natural Numbers is unbounded,
    so can not be

    That is just what I said.
    The set of numbers smaller than 1000 can be emptied by individual
    operations. An actually infinite set cannot be emptied by individual operations. The remainder is called dark.


    But that is an operation that can only be done on FINITE sets. That fact
    that you can't do that to the set of Natural Numbers says the the SET is unbounded, not that any individual Natural Numbers isn't finite and
    definable.


    Nope. Again, the SET of Natural Numbers is Unbounded, but each
    individual Natural Number is finite (and thus part of a Bounded set)

    The set consists of only natnumbers. Thoese which can be used as
    individuals leave almost all natnumbers as remainder.

    Except that it ignores the FACT that every Natural Number can be used individually so when you look at the UNBOUNDED set of sets that


    We can individual describe only finite things (since we are finite) so
    we CAN describe ANY Natural Number, so no Natural Number is "Dark".

    Wrong. The unit fractions have a first element because they all have
    finite distances. But you cannot describe it.

    Then what is it. Your "Dark Numbers" and the "Visible" numbers by your definition don't overlap, so by your logic there must be a smallest Dark
    Number and a larges Visible Number, so what are they?


    You are just confusing the SET of Natural Numbers for the individual
    elements of the set.

    The set is nothing but its members.

    That is an error. Sets have many properties other than their members, especially when dealing with finite but unbounded members.


    I guess, your concept of "Set Theory" is incapable of handling
    unbounded sets.

    It is better than all others because they fail to distinguish potential
    and actual infinity.

    What is the difference?

    Your concept tries to create a set of things that just don't exist.

    It is the set of some of "..." except that those are actually all
    describable, so there is nothing left to put into it.


    Regards, WM


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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Dec 11 17:56:06 2023
    On 12/11/23 6:20 AM, WM wrote:
    On 10.12.2023 11:35, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-08 15:08:45 +0000, WM said:

    On 08.12.2023 08:57, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1,
    2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound:

    There are no visible dark numbers.

    Without a definition of "dark number" that cannot be proven.

    Dark numbers are well defined.

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually) "defined"
    or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender and
    receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial segment
    to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark natural numbers.

    Since it is impossible to reduce the undefined numbers to less than ℵo, almost are natural numbers are dark and will remain dark.

    Regards, WM

    Saying they are "well defined" doesn't make them so. So you are just
    showing your lack of ability to actually use logic.

    If you are implying that they are numbrs that can't be communicated,
    then that has nothing to do with being able to list ALL the numbers in
    finite time.

    Your logic confuses a property of the Set, it being unbounded in size,
    and thus not individually listable, with the properties of the elements,
    which are all finite, and thus defined/instantiateable/communicable.

    There are an unbounded number of "Finite Initial Segments" that could be transmitted, so we can cover all of the Natural Numbers in that set, and "reduce" the "undefined" numbers to 0.

    So, your Darkness is just a category error of applying a Set Property to
    an Element of it.

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 12 12:14:21 2023
    On 2023-12-11 11:20:21 +0000, WM said:

    On 10.12.2023 11:35, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-08 15:08:45 +0000, WM said:

    On 08.12.2023 08:57, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2,
    3, ..., n}| = ℵo .

    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound:

    There are no visible dark numbers.

    Without a definition of "dark number" that cannot be proven.

    Dark numbers are well defined.

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)
    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender
    and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial
    segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark
    natural numbers.

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included
    in a proof.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Tue Dec 12 11:16:18 2023
    On 11.12.2023 23:56, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/11/23 6:20 AM, WM wrote:

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)
    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender
    and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial
    segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark
    natural numbers.

    Since it is impossible to reduce the undefined numbers to less than
    ℵo, almost are natural numbers are dark and will remain dark.

    If you are implying that they are numbrs that can't be communicated,
    then that has nothing to do with being able to list ALL the numbers in
    finite time.

    But it has to do with not being able to list the last one.

    Your logic confuses a property of the Set, it being unbounded in size,
    and thus not individually listable, with the properties of the elements, which are all finite, and thus defined/instantiateable/communicable.

    If all elements were listable, then all could be listed.

    There are an unbounded number of "Finite Initial Segments" that could be transmitted, so we can cover all of the Natural Numbers in that set, and "reduce" the "undefined" numbers to 0.

    No you can't. If you could transmit every one such that none would
    remain, the you could list the last one. That is impossible. Therefore
    there remain always amost all natnumbers unlisted.

    So, your Darkness is just a category error of applying a Set Property to
    an Element of it.

    We talk about the numbers.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    The set is used here:
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    There is in fact a difference as can see.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Tue Dec 12 12:55:16 2023
    On 12.12.2023 11:14, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-11 11:20:21 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers are well defined.

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)
    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender
    and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial
    segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark
    natural numbers.

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included
    in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 12 07:13:37 2023
    On 12/12/23 5:16 AM, WM wrote:
    On 11.12.2023 23:56, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/11/23 6:20 AM, WM wrote:

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)
    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that
    sender and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite
    initial segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called
    dark natural numbers.

    Since it is impossible to reduce the undefined numbers to less than
    ℵo, almost are natural numbers are dark and will remain dark.

    If you are implying that they are numbrs that can't be communicated,
    then that has nothing to do with being able to list ALL the numbers in
    finite time.

    But it has to do with not being able to list the last one.

    But if there isn't a last one, why shoud be be able to list it?

    Having a "last" element is a property of the Set, not the elements. And
    you agree that the Natural Numbers are Unboundd, so not having a


    Your logic confuses a property of the Set, it being unbounded in size,
    and thus not individually listable, with the properties of the
    elements, which are all finite, and thus
    defined/instantiateable/communicable.

    If all elements were listable, then all could be listed.

    And each one can, just not as a full set, as the Set is Unbounded.

    Again, you are confusing the Set with the Elements.

    Your "Dark" is just that the SET is Unbounded, is doesn't apply to any
    of the elememts.


    There are an unbounded number of "Finite Initial Segments" that could
    be transmitted, so we can cover all of the Natural Numbers in that
    set, and "reduce" the "undefined" numbers to 0.

    No you can't. If you could transmit every one such that none would
    remain, the you could list the last one. That is impossible. Therefore
    there remain always amost all natnumbers unlisted.

    Again, that is the property of the Set of Natural Numbers being
    Unbounded, not of the individual Natuaral Numbers.

    Every Natural Number is individually "listable"


    So, your Darkness is just a category error of applying a Set Property
    to an Element of it.

    We talk about the numbers.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    The set is used here:
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    There is in fact a difference as can see.

    And, if you want to claim that the remainer is "Dark Numbers", show me a
    set that in non-empty, and contains only "Dark Numbers" (and not ANY of
    N_def)

    Note, ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n} is not such a set, as it contains the
    definite number (n+1)

    Show me one which has NO definite numbers, but does have some Natural
    Numbers (some dark ones)

    You can't try to weasel out by saying they are only useable as a
    collection, because I am asking for such a collection.

    Your problem is going to be that your "Darkness" is actually a property
    of Unbounded Sets, not the Elements of the Natural Numbers, so you don't
    have anything to try and build the set from, it will need to include an infinite number of "Definite Natural Numbers" instead of none of them.


    Regards, WM

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  • From Jeff Barnett@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 12 10:45:58 2023
    T24gMTIvMTIvMjAyMyAzOjE0IEFNLCBNaWtrbyB3cm90ZToNCj4gT24gMjAyMy0xMi0xMSAx MToyMDoyMSArMDAwMCwgV00gc2FpZDoNCj4gDQo+PiBPbiAxMC4xMi4yMDIzIDExOjM1LCBN aWtrbyB3cm90ZToNCj4+PiBPbiAyMDIzLTEyLTA4IDE1OjA4OjQ1ICswMDAwLCBXTSBzYWlk Og0KPj4+DQo+Pj4+IE9uIDA4LjEyLjIwMjMgMDg6NTcsIE1pa2tvIHdyb3RlOg0KPj4+Pj4g T24gMjAyMy0xMi0wNyAxNTo1ODo1OSArMDAwMCwgV00gc2FpZDoNCj4+Pj4NCj4+Pj4+PiBE YXJrIG51bWJlcnMgY2FuIGJlIG1hZGUgdmlzaWJsZSB3aXRob3V0IGJvdW5kLuKIgG4g4oiI IOKElV92aXM6IHzihJUgXCANCj4+Pj4+PiB7MSwgMiwgMywgLi4uLCBufXwgPSDihLVvIC4N Cj4+Pj4+DQo+Pj4+PiBTYW1lIHdheSBkYXJrIG51bWJlcnMgaW4g4oSVX3ZpcyBjYW4gYmUg bWFkZSB2aXNpYmxlIHdpdGhvdXQgYm91bmQ6DQo+Pj4+DQo+Pj4+IFRoZXJlIGFyZSBubyB2 aXNpYmxlIGRhcmsgbnVtYmVycy4NCj4+Pg0KPj4+IFdpdGhvdXQgYSBkZWZpbml0aW9uIG9m ICJkYXJrIG51bWJlciIgdGhhdCBjYW5ub3QgYmUgcHJvdmVuLg0KPj4NCj4+IERhcmsgbnVt YmVycyBhcmUgd2VsbCBkZWZpbmVkLg0KPj4NCj4+IERlZmluaXRpb246IEEgbmF0dXJhbCBu dW1iZXIgaXMgImlkZW50aWZpZWQiIG9yIChpbmRpdmlkdWFsbHkpIA0KPj4gImRlZmluZWQi IG9yICJpbnN0YW50aWF0ZWQiIGlmIGl0IGNhbiBiZSBjb21tdW5pY2F0ZWQgc3VjaCB0aGF0 IHNlbmRlciANCj4+IGFuZCByZWNlaXZlciB1bmRlcnN0YW5kIHRoZSBzYW1lIGFuZCBjYW4g bGluayBpdCBieSBhIGZpbml0ZSBpbml0aWFsIA0KPj4gc2VnbWVudCB0byB0aGUgb3JpZ2lu IDAuIEFsbCBvdGhlciBuYXR1cmFsIG51bWJlcnMgYXJlIGNhbGxlZCBkYXJrIA0KPj4gbmF0 dXJhbCBudW1iZXJzLg0KPiANCj4gVGhhdCBkZWZpbml0aW9uIGhhcyBubyBzaWduaWZpY2Fu Y2UgYXMgbG9uZyBhcyBpdCBoYXMgbm90IGJlZW4gaW5jbHVkZWQNCj4gaW4gYSBwcm9vZi4N CldoeT8gVGhlcmUgaGF2ZSBiZWVuIGRlZmluaXRpb25zIG9mIGludGVyZXN0aW5nIG1hdGhl bWF0aWNhbCBvYmplY3RzIA0KYXJvdW5kIGZvciBkZWNhZGVzIGJlZm9yZSB0aGUgcHJvb2Yg dGhhdCB0aGVyZSB3YXMgb3Igd2FzIG5vdCBhbiBlbGVtZW50IA0KdGhhdCBmaXQgdGhlIGRl ZmluaXRpb24uDQoNCkluIGZhY3QgeW91IGNvdWxkICJwcm92ZSIgdGhhdCBldmVyeSBkYXJr IG51bWJlciBoYXMgaW5maW5pdGUgDQpwcmVkZWNlc3NvcnMuIFRoYXQgaXNuJ3QgdmVyeSBp bnRlcmVzdGluZyBpZiB0aGVyZSBhcmUgbm8gZGFyayBudW1iZXJzIA0KdGhvdWdoLg0KLS0g DQpKZWZmIEJhcm5ldHQNCg0K

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to Jeff Barnett on Wed Dec 13 12:00:05 2023
    On 2023-12-12 17:45:58 +0000, Jeff Barnett said:

    On 12/12/2023 3:14 AM, Mikko wrote:

    On 2023-12-11 11:20:21 +0000, WM said:



    On 10.12.2023 11:35, Mikko wrote:

    On 2023-12-08 15:08:45 +0000, WM said:



    On 08.12.2023 08:57, Mikko wrote:

    On 2023-12-07 15:58:59 +0000, WM said:



    Dark numbers can be made visible without bound.∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ >>>>>>>
    {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo .



    Same way dark numbers in ℕ_vis can be made visible without bound: >>>>>>


    There are no visible dark numbers.



    Without a definition of "dark number" that cannot be proven.



    Dark numbers are well defined.



    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)

    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender

    and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial

    segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark

    natural numbers.



    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included

    in a proof.

    Why? There have been definitions of interesting mathematical objects

    around for decades before the proof that there was or was not an element

    that fit the definition.


    If you build a system on things that are not known to exist you don't
    know whether the system is consistent. Then the usefulness of the system
    is very limited. If you can determine whether the system is consistent
    then you have the proof of the existence or non-existence of those things
    and can use that knowledge.

    In fact you could "prove" that every dark number has infinite

    predecessors. That isn't very interesting if there are no dark numbers

    though.

    In certain sense there are. In the first order Peano artimetic you cannot
    claim (and therefore cannnot prove) that the set of all natural numbers contains a proper subset that also satisfies the same axioms, and it is possible to construct non-standard models where such subset actually
    exists.

    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 13 11:47:15 2023
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    On 12.12.2023 11:14, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-11 11:20:21 +0000, WM said:

    Dark numbers are well defined.

    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)
    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that sender
    and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite initial
    segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called dark
    natural numbers.

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included
    in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    A definition is never the result of a proof.

    If there were a proof that uses the definition you would have presented
    it or posted a reference to a publication or web page where the proof
    is presented. As you didn't we infer that you don't know any such proof.

    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Jeff Barnett on Wed Dec 13 13:05:52 2023
    On 12.12.2023 18:45, Jeff Barnett wrote:


    Definition: A natural number is "identified" or (individually)
    "defined" or "instantiated" if it can be communicated such that
    sender and receiver understand the same and can link it by a finite
    initial segment to the origin 0. All other natural numbers are called
    dark natural numbers.

    In fact you could "prove" that every dark number has infinite
    predecessors.

    No. Every visible number has ℵo successors. Every natural number has
    only finitely many predecessors. But only visible numbers have a
    complete finite initial segment {1, 2, 3, ..., n}.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Wed Dec 13 18:03:40 2023
    On 13.12.2023 11:00, Mikko wrote:

    If you build a system on things that are not known to exist you don't
    know whether the system is consistent.

    That is impossible to know for all Gödel-systems.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Wed Dec 13 18:01:37 2023
    On 12.12.2023 13:13, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/12/23 5:16 AM, WM wrote:

    We talk about the numbers.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    The set is used here:
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    There is in fact a difference as we can see.

    And, if you want to claim that the remainder is "Dark Numbers", show me a
    set that in non-empty, and contains only "Dark Numbers" (and not ANY of N_def)

    Impossible. ℕ_def is potentially infinite. That makes this matter so difficult to understand for you.

    Note, ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n} is not such a set, as it contains the
    definite number (n+1)

    To be precise, it is not a set at all, because it can grow (and shrink).
    We call it a collection.

    Show me one which has NO definite numbers, but does have some Natural
    Numbers (some dark ones)

    Impossible.

    You can't try to weasel out by saying they are only useable as a
    collection, because I am asking for such a collection.

    Your problem is going to be that your "Darkness" is actually a property
    of Unbounded Sets,

    It is a property of actually infinite sets. The collection ℕ_def is
    unbounded but without dark numbers.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Wed Dec 13 18:05:37 2023
    On 13.12.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included
    in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    A definition is never the result of a proof.

    Inaccessible, dark, numbers are the result of many proofs. The
    definition has been given to describe them.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 13 19:47:24 2023
    On 2023-12-13 17:05:37 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included >>>> in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    A definition is never the result of a proof.

    Inaccessible, dark, numbers are the result of many proofs. The
    definition has been given to describe them.

    Not of any proofs about natural numbers. That there are real numbers that cannot be described is a well known result.

    Mikko

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 13 20:15:09 2023
    On 12/13/23 12:03 PM, WM wrote:
    On 13.12.2023 11:00, Mikko wrote:

    If you build a system on things that are not known to exist you don't
    know whether the system is consistent.

    That is impossible to know for all Gödel-systems.

    Regards, WM

    It is a REQUIREMENT for a system to be applicable for the Godel proof.

    In one sense inconsistant systems are trivially complete by the
    principle of explosion, as all statements are provable to be both True
    and Refutable/provable false.

    Now, it maybe true that we can't prove that a system we want to apply
    Godel to is consistent, but we can say that if it is, and it meets the
    other requirments, it is incomplete.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Mikko on Thu Dec 14 15:51:54 2023
    On 13.12.2023 18:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-13 17:05:37 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been
    included
    in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    A definition is never the result of a proof.

    Inaccessible, dark, numbers are the result of many proofs. The
    definition has been given to describe them.

    Not of any proofs about natural numbers. That there are real numbers that cannot be described is a well known result.

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit fractions.
    That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural numbers
    cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or describing
    any individual x > 0.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 14 19:10:59 2023
    On 12/14/23 9:51 AM, WM wrote:
    On 13.12.2023 18:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-13 17:05:37 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been
    included
    in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    A definition is never the result of a proof.

    Inaccessible, dark, numbers are the result of many proofs. The
    definition has been given to describe them.

    Not of any proofs about natural numbers. That there are real numbers that
    cannot be described is a well known result.

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit fractions.
    That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural numbers
    cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or describing
    any individual x > 0.

    Regards, WM



    Shows no such thing.

    You haven't show that they can't be described/chosen individually, just
    that you can't describe them all at once.

    Any Natural Number can be chosen or described as an individual. It just
    is we can't do that to EVERY Number AT ONCE.

    This is the unbounded nature of the set.

    Thus, NO Natural Number is "Dark", but your "Darkness" is just an effect
    of Unbounded sets.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 14 20:55:03 2023
    On 12/13/23 12:01 PM, WM wrote:
    On 12.12.2023 13:13, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/12/23 5:16 AM, WM wrote:

    We talk about the numbers.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo

    The set is used here:
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    There is in fact a difference as we can see.

    And, if you want to claim that the remainder is "Dark Numbers", show
    me a set that in non-empty, and contains only "Dark Numbers" (and not
    ANY of N_def)

    Impossible. ℕ_def is potentially infinite. That makes this matter so difficult to understand for you.

    Can't be "potebtially" infinite. Either it is or it isn't, as sets have definite membership, and thus definite size.

    If it isn't a set, then you can't be "removed" from the set of Natural
    Numbers to get your set of "Dark Numbers".

    I guess your "Dark Numbers" are just some sort of "Collection" without
    ANY members.


    Note, ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n} is not such a set, as it contains the
    definite number (n+1)

    To be precise, it is not a set at all, because it can grow (and shrink).
    We call it a collection.

    No, for any given n, it is a particular set of numbers. I guess you
    don't understand how qualifiers work.


    Show me one which has NO definite numbers, but does have some Natural
    Numbers (some dark ones)

    Impossible.

    Then I guess you are admitting they don't actually exist.

    They are supposedly the numbers that can't be used individually, only collectively, but apparently they can't be used collectively either, so
    they don't actually exist.


    You can't try to weasel out by saying they are only useable as a
    collection, because I am asking for such a collection.

    Your problem is going to be that your "Darkness" is actually a
    property of Unbounded Sets,

    It is a property of actually infinite sets. The collection ℕ_def is unbounded but without dark numbers.

    Which means your theory is just based on NONSENSE. ℕ_def is just a name
    for something that CAN be as big as the Natural Numbers, since there is
    no Natural Number that can't be in it, you admitted you can't define a
    set even collectively of the set of Dark Number, so there is no upper
    bound on ℕ_def except for ℕ.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Fri Dec 15 13:29:37 2023
    On 2023-12-13 17:03:40 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 11:00, Mikko wrote:

    If you build a system on things that are not known to exist you don't
    know whether the system is consistent.

    That is impossible to know for all Gödel-systems.

    So it seems. However, Euclidean gemetry and natural numbers have been
    studied over many milennia, so it seems that if they were inconsistent
    then someone would have noticed. If your system is not simple enough
    that its consistency can be proven you should at least try to prove
    that it is equiconsistent with natural numbers (or specificallynthe first
    order Peano arithmetic).

    Mikko

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Fri Dec 15 13:19:07 2023
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 18:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-13 17:05:37 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    That definition has no significance as long as it has not been included >>>>>> in a proof.

    It is the result of many proofs.

    A definition is never the result of a proof.

    Inaccessible, dark, numbers are the result of many proofs. The
    definition has been given to describe them.

    Not of any proofs about natural numbers. That there are real numbers that
    cannot be described is a well known result.

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or describing any individual x > 0.

    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is actually false.

    Mikko

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Fri Dec 15 20:05:27 2023
    On 12/15/23 12:26 PM, WM wrote:
    Richard Damon schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 01:11:04 UTC+1:
    On 12/14/23 9:51 AM, WM wrote:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit fractions. >>> That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural numbers
    cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or describing
    any individual x > 0.

    You haven't show that they can't be described/chosen individually, just
    that you can't describe them all at once.

    Then describe a unit fraction that has remained undescribed by me.

    You have admitted you can't even give a collective set of your dark
    numbers for me to even attempt it.

    EVERY Natural Number is described


    Any Natural Number can be chosen or described as an individual. It just
    is we can't do that to EVERY Number AT ONCE.

    Describe not every one at once but only one of those which
    remain forever undescribed by me.

    There are no numbers that you haven't described, since you "describe"
    EVERY natural number.

    You have admitted this, so you reveal your ignorance.


    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 10:01:14 2023
    On 2023-12-15 17:33:33 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 12:19:12 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 18:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-13 17:05:37 +0000, WM said:

    On 13.12.2023 10:47, Mikko wrote:
    On 2023-12-12 11:55:16 +0000, WM said:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural
    numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or
    describing any individual x > 0.
    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is actually false.

    Then describe how these numbers can be chosen as individuals.

    Every natural number has a name, and no other natural number has the
    same name. Numbers that have no name are not natural numbers.

    Every non-empty subset of natural numbers has a smallest member.
    If the "dark" numbers are natural numbers there is the smallest
    "dark" number. One can choose that.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 12:24:03 2023
    Le 16/12/2023 à 09:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-15 17:33:33 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 12:19:12 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural >>>> numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or
    describing any individual x > 0.
    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is actually false.

    Then describe how these numbers can be chosen as individuals.

    Every natural number has a name,

    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception.
    Therefore NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 12:30:43 2023
    Le 16/12/2023 à 02:05, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/15/23 12:26 PM, WM wrote:
    Richard Damon schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 01:11:04 UTC+1:
    On 12/14/23 9:51 AM, WM wrote:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit fractions. >>>> That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural numbers
    cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or describing >>>> any individual x > 0.

    You haven't show that they can't be described/chosen individually, just
    that you can't describe them all at once.

    Then describe a unit fraction that has remained undescribed by me.

    You have admitted you can't even give a collective set of your dark
    numbers for me to even attempt it.

    Collectively I can: All numbers which cannot be described as individuals
    and have no finite initial segmente {1, 2, 3, ..., n} are dark.

    EVERY Natural Number is described

    Describe the smallest unit fraction.

    Describe not every one at once but only one of those which
    remain forever undescribed by me.

    There are no numbers that you haven't described, since you "describe"
    EVERY natural number.

    Not by their finite initial segment.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 07:45:35 2023
    On 12/16/23 7:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 16/12/2023 à 09:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-15 17:33:33 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 12:19:12 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural >>>>> numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or
    describing any individual x > 0.
    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is
    actually false.

    Then describe how these numbers can be chosen as individuals.

    Every natural number has a name,

    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception. Therefore
    NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    Regards, WM



    1/1 is the "first" as the unit fractions are numbered from the 1 end.

    There is no other end, as Natural Numbers are Unbounded.

    Any logic that claims otherwise isn't able to handle Unbounded sets.

    So, you are just admitting that your logic can't handle unbounded sets.

    Thus, NUF isn't actually properly defined, as it can only handle inputs
    that are unboundedly small (which you call "dark"), and thus (in your
    words) numbers not individually usable, that must be used individually
    but can't be becuase they are "dark".

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 08:02:40 2023
    On 12/16/23 7:30 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 16/12/2023 à 02:05, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/15/23 12:26 PM, WM wrote:
    Richard Damon schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 01:11:04 UTC+1:
    On 12/14/23 9:51 AM, WM wrote:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions.
    That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural numbers
    cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or describing >>>>> any individual x > 0.

    You haven't show that they can't be described/chosen individually, just >>>> that you can't describe them all at once.

    Then describe a unit fraction that has remained undescribed by me.

    You have admitted you can't even give a collective set of your dark
    numbers for me to even attempt it.

    Collectively I can: All numbers which cannot be described as individuals
    and have no finite initial segmente {1, 2, 3, ..., n} are dark.

    Which has no members as ALL Natural Numbers are finite, and thus are
    part of a finite initial segment.

    Now, if you are forgetting your "Natural Numbers" domain, then "Numbers"
    that aren't Natural Numbers can't be described as Natural Numbers.


    EVERY Natural Number is described

    Describe the smallest unit fraction.

    It does not exist, by DEFINITION, just as the Highest Natural Number
    doesnt exist.


    Describe not every one at once but only one of those which
    remain forever undescribed by me.

    There are no numbers that you haven't described, since you "describe"
    EVERY natural number.

    Not by their finite initial segment.



    Why not? All Natural Numbers are finite and thus are part of a finite
    initial segment.

    You only get your "dark" numbers by leaving the Natural Numbers, but you
    start by defining your starting number set as the Natual Numbers, so you
    are based on a cotradiction.

    Regards, WM


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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 14:06:55 2023
    Le 16/12/2023 à 13:45, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/16/23 7:24 AM, WM wrote:


    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception. Therefore
    NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    1/1 is the "first" as the unit fractions are numbered from the 1 end.

    There is no other end, as Natural Numbers are Unbounded.

    There is NUF(x) which increases one by one with gaps.

    Any logic that claims otherwise isn't able to handle Unbounded sets.

    My logic handles actually infinite sets.

    Thus, NUF isn't actually properly defined, as it can only handle inputs
    that are unboundedly small

    All natural numbers are xisting according to set theory. Hence all unit fractions are existing. None is missing. And after each point 1/n the is a constant level of NUF(x).

    and thus (in your
    words) numbers not individually usable, that must be used individually
    but can't be becuase they are "dark".

    They cannot be used individually. Nevertheless, according to Cantor, they exist.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 16 12:15:06 2023
    On 12/16/23 9:06 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 16/12/2023 à 13:45, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/16/23 7:24 AM, WM wrote:


    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception. Therefore
    NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    1/1 is the "first" as the unit fractions are numbered from the 1 end.

    There is no other end, as Natural Numbers are Unbounded.

    There is NUF(x) which increases one by one with gaps.

    Which you have been unnable to actually show a value of at any defined
    number.

    By your logic, it increases one by one at numbers that are dark, which
    can't actually be used as parameters to the function.


    Any logic that claims otherwise isn't able to handle Unbounded sets.

    My logic handles actually infinite sets.

    Nope.


    Thus, NUF isn't actually properly defined, as it can only handle
    inputs that are unboundedly small

    All natural numbers are xisting according to set theory. Hence all unit fractions are existing. None is missing. And after each point 1/n the is
    a constant level of NUF(x).

    What value of x does NUF(x) have a finite value?

    NUF(x) for all defined numbers is "infinte", which isn't actually a
    Natural Number.

    So your NUF is a mapping from non-Natural Numbers or to non-Natural
    Numbers so isn't actually a function in the domain of Natural Numbers.


    and thus (in your words) numbers not individually usable, that must be
    used individually but can't be becuase they are "dark".

    They cannot be used individually. Nevertheless, according to Cantor,
    they exist.


    Nope.

    Quote the ACTUAL WORDS that Cantor uses to say that there exists numbers
    that can not be used as an individual.

    Regards, WM



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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 17 21:31:01 2023
    Le 16/12/2023 à 18:15, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/16/23 9:06 AM, WM wrote:

    There is NUF(x) which increases one by one with gaps.

    Which you have been unnable to actually show a value of at any defined number.

    At defined numbers the value is infinite. But it is 0 at 0 and all unit fractions have distances from each other.

    By your logic, it increases one by one at numbers that are dark,

    The one-by-one increase is dictated by mathematics. It cannot be seen.
    That implies the existence of dark numbers.

    What value of x does NUF(x) have a finite value?

    x is smaller than every definable eps > 0.

    NUF(x) for all defined numbers is "infinte", which isn't actually a
    Natural Number.

    Yes.

    So your NUF is a mapping from non-Natural Numbers or to non-Natural
    Numbers so isn't actually a function in the domain of Natural Numbers.

    The domain is the real axis.

    and thus (in your words) numbers not individually usable, that must be
    used individually but can't be becuase they are "dark".

    They cannot be used individually. Nevertheless, according to Cantor,
    they exist.

    Quote the ACTUAL WORDS that Cantor uses to say that there exists numbers
    that can not be used as an individual.

    The completed infinite, das vollendete Unendliche or Vollendetunendliche
    as Cantor called it [letter to Lipschitz (19 Nov. 1883) and E. Zermelo:
    "Georg Cantor – Gesammelte Abhandlungen mathematischen und
    philosophischen Inhalts", Springer, Berlin (1932) p. 391], is a
    prerequisite of set theory. Hence no fraction imust be missing.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 17 19:09:35 2023
    On 12/17/23 4:31 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 16/12/2023 à 18:15, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/16/23 9:06 AM, WM wrote:

    There is NUF(x) which increases one by one with gaps.

    Which you have been unnable to actually show a value of at any defined
    number.

    At defined numbers the value is infinite. But it is 0 at 0 and all unit fractions have distances from each other.

    So?

    The distance is unboundedly small, and moves from 0 to infinity in an unboundedly small distance.

    This is just the affect of being at the unbounded


    By your logic, it increases one by one at numbers that are dark,

    The one-by-one increase is dictated by mathematics. It cannot be seen.
    That implies the existence of dark numbers.

    No, it is not.

    Sets are not built "Step by Step".

    Your "One by One" logic limits you to finite sets,


    What value of x does NUF(x) have a finite value?

    x is smaller than every definable eps > 0.

    What value is that?

    You are just admitting your funciton doesn't exist.


    NUF(x) for all defined numbers is "infinte", which isn't actually a
    Natural Number.

    Yes.

    So your NUF is a mapping from non-Natural Numbers or to non-Natural
    Numbers so isn't actually a function in the domain of Natural Numbers.

    The domain is the real axis.

    "Axis" isn't a thing for number.

    You are just showing you don't know what you are talking about.

    You don't seem to understand how you generate the numbers you want to
    talk about.


    and thus (in your words) numbers not individually usable, that must
    be used individually but can't be becuase they are "dark".

    They cannot be used individually. Nevertheless, according to Cantor,
    they exist.

    Quote the ACTUAL WORDS that Cantor uses to say that there exists
    numbers that can not be used as an individual.

    The completed infinite, das vollendete Unendliche or Vollendetunendliche
    as Cantor called it [letter to Lipschitz (19 Nov. 1883) and E. Zermelo: "Georg Cantor – Gesammelte Abhandlungen mathematischen und
    philosophischen Inhalts", Springer, Berlin (1932) p. 391], is a
    prerequisite of set theory. Hence no fraction imust be missing.

    Regards, WM



    Ok, so you can't actually quote the material you are using.

    Note, there IS an indexing that has no fraction missing, so it satisfies
    the requirements

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Mon Dec 18 10:45:42 2023
    Le 18/12/2023 à 01:09, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/17/23 4:31 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 16/12/2023 à 18:15, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/16/23 9:06 AM, WM wrote:

    There is NUF(x) which increases one by one with gaps.

    Which you have been unnable to actually show a value of at any defined
    number.

    At defined numbers the value is infinite. But it is 0 at 0 and all unit
    fractions have distances from each other.

    So?

    The distance is unboundedly small, and moves from 0 to infinity in an unboundedly small distance.

    This is just the affect of being at the unbounded


    By your logic, it increases one by one at numbers that are dark,

    The one-by-one increase is dictated by mathematics. It cannot be seen.
    That implies the existence of dark numbers.

    No, it is not.

    Sets are not built "Step by Step".

    Your "One by One" logic limits you to finite sets,


    What value of x does NUF(x) have a finite value?

    x is smaller than every definable eps > 0.

    What value is that?

    You are just admitting your funciton doesn't exist.


    NUF(x) for all defined numbers is "infinte", which isn't actually a
    Natural Number.

    Yes.

    So your NUF is a mapping from non-Natural Numbers or to non-Natural
    Numbers so isn't actually a function in the domain of Natural Numbers.

    The domain is the real axis.

    "Axis" isn't a thing for number.

    You are just showing you don't know what you are talking about.

    You don't seem to understand how you generate the numbers you want to
    talk about.


    and thus (in your words) numbers not individually usable, that must
    be used individually but can't be becuase they are "dark".

    They cannot be used individually. Nevertheless, according to Cantor,
    they exist.

    Quote the ACTUAL WORDS that Cantor uses to say that there exists
    numbers that can not be used as an individual.

    The completed infinite, das vollendete Unendliche or Vollendetunendliche
    as Cantor called it [letter to Lipschitz (19 Nov. 1883) and E. Zermelo:
    "Georg Cantor – Gesammelte Abhandlungen mathematischen und
    philosophischen Inhalts", Springer, Berlin (1932) p. 391], is a
    prerequisite of set theory. Hence no fraction imust be missing.

    Ok, so you can't actually quote the material you are using.

    I did it. You claimed: while any distance is finite, you can have an
    infinite number of them before any finite distance. How to use them as an individual if they cannot be separated?

    Note, there IS an indexing that has no fraction missing, so it satisfies
    the requirements

    Is there an indexing of the unit fractions although there is "one of the strange properties of unboundely small values, while any distance is
    finite, you can have an infinite number of them before any finite
    distance"? How can you index fractions ehich cannot be separated and used
    as individuals?

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Dec 18 09:54:40 2023
    On 12/18/23 5:45 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 18/12/2023 à 01:09, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/17/23 4:31 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 16/12/2023 à 18:15, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/16/23 9:06 AM, WM wrote:

    There is NUF(x) which increases one by one with gaps.

    Which you have been unnable to actually show a value of at any
    defined number.

    At defined numbers the value is infinite. But it is 0 at 0 and all
    unit fractions have distances from each other.

    So?

    The distance is unboundedly small, and moves from 0 to infinity in an
    unboundedly small distance.

    This is just the affect of being at the unbounded


    By your logic, it increases one by one at numbers that are dark,

    The one-by-one increase is dictated by mathematics. It cannot be
    seen. That implies the existence of dark numbers.

    No, it is not.

    Sets are not built "Step by Step".

    Your "One by One" logic limits you to finite sets,


    What value of x does NUF(x) have a finite value?

    x is smaller than every definable eps > 0.

    What value is that?

    You are just admitting your funciton doesn't exist.


    NUF(x) for all defined numbers is "infinte", which isn't actually a
    Natural Number.

    Yes.

    So your NUF is a mapping from non-Natural Numbers or to non-Natural
    Numbers so isn't actually a function in the domain of Natural Numbers.

    The domain is the real axis.

    "Axis" isn't a thing for number.

    You are just showing you don't know what you are talking about.

    You don't seem to understand how you generate the numbers you want to
    talk about.


    and thus (in your words) numbers not individually usable, that
    must be used individually but can't be becuase they are "dark".

    They cannot be used individually. Nevertheless, according to
    Cantor, they exist.

    Quote the ACTUAL WORDS that Cantor uses to say that there exists
    numbers that can not be used as an individual.

    The completed infinite, das vollendete Unendliche or
    Vollendetunendliche as Cantor called it [letter to Lipschitz (19 Nov.
    1883) and E. Zermelo: "Georg Cantor – Gesammelte Abhandlungen
    mathematischen und philosophischen Inhalts", Springer, Berlin (1932)
    p. 391], is a prerequisite of set theory. Hence no fraction imust be
    missing.

    Ok, so you can't actually quote the material you are using.

    I did it. You claimed: while any distance is finite, you can have an
    infinite number of them before any finite distance. How to use them as
    an individual if they cannot be separated?

    Note, there IS an indexing that has no fraction missing, so it
    satisfies the requirements

    Is there an indexing of the unit fractions although there is "one of the strange properties of unboundely small values, while any distance is
    finite, you can have an infinite number of them before any finite
    distance"? How can you index fractions ehich cannot be separated and
    used as individuals?

    Regards, WM




    But you CAN index the fractions, and use them individually. They index
    from 1/1 ... 1/n ... and all of them can be used individually just as
    all Natural Numbers can.

    Until you show that there exists a Natural Number, that is a number of
    the set built by an operation that defines ALL Natural Numbers (except
    0, the starting number) as the successor to a predicessor that is also
    defined by this system in a finite number of steps back to 0, that can
    not be named, your system is just based on lies.

    ALL Natural Numbers are finite, and finitely nameable and finitely
    definable. They just end up with the property of being Unbounded, so
    there is no highest element of the set, and the size of the set can not
    be named as a member of the set of Natural Numbers, but is called
    (typically) omega, which is an infinite.

    Once you try to put some transfinite number into the set, you need a
    DIFFERENT generation formula, as the generation method of the Naturals
    doesn't get you there.

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 19 11:54:39 2023
    On 2023-12-16 12:24:03 +0000, WM said:

    Le 16/12/2023 à 09:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-15 17:33:33 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 12:19:12 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural >>>>> numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or
    describing any individual x > 0.
    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is actually false.

    Then describe how these numbers can be chosen as individuals.

    Every natural number has a name,

    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception. Therefore
    NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    You can pick any unit fraction and say that it is the "first" in some sense. You cant pick the smallest one because no unit fraction is the smallest one. There are infinitely many unit fractions and everyone has a name.

    Note that a text mentioning NUF without a definition is not a proof.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 19 12:07:45 2023
    Le 19/12/2023 à 10:54, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-16 12:24:03 +0000, WM said:

    Le 16/12/2023 à 09:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-15 17:33:33 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 12:19:12 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural >>>>>> numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or >>>>>> describing any individual x > 0.
    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is actually false.

    Then describe how these numbers can be chosen as individuals.

    Every natural number has a name,

    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception. Therefore
    NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    You can pick any unit fraction and say that it is the "first" in some sense. You cant pick the smallest one because no unit fraction is the smallest one. There are infinitely many unit fractions and everyone has a name.

    ℵo have no names. Every one you name has ℵo smaller ones unnamed.

    The completed infinite, das vollendete Unendliche or Vollendetunendliche
    as Cantor called it [letter to Lipschitz (19 Nov. 1883) and E. Zermelo:
    "Georg Cantor – Gesammelte Abhandlungen mathematischen und
    philosophischen Inhalts", Springer, Berlin (1932) p. 391], is a
    prerequisite of set theory. All natural numbers are required to exist for counting and with them also all unit fractions. But all unit fractions 1/n
    have finite distances dn from each other

    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = dn > 0.

    Therefore the function Number of Unit Fractions between 0 and x, NUF(x),
    cannot be infinite for all x > 0. The claim ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong. The function can increase only one by one because between two
    steps the increase pauses during the gap of more than one point between
    the unit fractions.

    If every positive point has ℵo unit fractions at its left-hand side,
    then there is no positive point with less than ℵo unit fractions at its left-hand side, then all positive points have ℵo unit fractions at their left-hand side, then the interval (0, 1] has 0 unit fractions at its left-hand side, then ℵo unit fractions are negative. Contradiction.

    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 19 19:00:34 2023
    Le 18/12/2023 à 15:54, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/18/23 5:45 AM, WM wrote:

    Is there an indexing of the unit fractions although there is "one of the
    strange properties of unboundely small values, while any distance is
    finite, you can have an infinite number of them before any finite
    distance"? How can you index fractions which cannot be separated and
    used as individuals?

    But you CAN index the fractions, and use them individually.

    No, as you said, almost all sit before any eps > 0 that you can define.

    Further it is cobvious to every sober mind that it is impossible to cover
    the matrix
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    XOOO...
    ..
    by reordering the X. Everyone of my students understands this. Are they so
    much more intelligent than all set theorists who proudly call themselves logicians?

    Regards, WM

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 20 14:00:07 2023
    On 2023-12-19 12:07:45 +0000, WM said:

    Le 19/12/2023 à 10:54, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-16 12:24:03 +0000, WM said:

    Le 16/12/2023 à 09:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-15 17:33:33 +0000, WM said:

    Mikko schrieb am Freitag, 15. Dezember 2023 um 12:19:12 UTC+1:
    On 2023-12-14 14:51:54 +0000, WM said:

    There are natural numbers that cannot be described.

    Proof: For every x > 0 there are infinitely many smaller unit
    fractions. That means infinitely many unit fractions and their natural >>>>>>> numbers cannot be chosen or described as individuals by choosing or >>>>>>> describing any individual x > 0.
    That "this means" above is not bvious and is not proven and is actually false.

    Then describe how these numbers can be chosen as individuals.

    Every natural number has a name,

    Name the first unit fraction.
    ∀n ∈ ℕ: 1/n - 1/(n+1) = d_n > 0
    Note smallest universal quantifier. There is no exception. Therefore
    NUF(x) can only increase one by one.
    ∀x ∈ (0, 1]: NUF(x) = ℵo
    is wrong.

    You can pick any unit fraction and say that it is the "first" in some sense. >> You cant pick the smallest one because no unit fraction is the smallest one. >> There are infinitely many unit fractions and everyone has a name.

    ℵo have no names. Every one you name has ℵo smaller ones unnamed.

    How do you know they are unit fractions if they have no names?
    Anyway, for every real x > 0 there are ℵo unit fractions between
    0 and x that do have a name. Perhaps there are even more unit
    fractions that don't have a name but you can't prove that there
    are any.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 20 16:26:49 2023
    Le 20/12/2023 à 13:00, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-19 12:07:45 +0000, WM said:

    You can pick any unit fraction and say that it is the "first" in some sense.
    You cant pick the smallest one because no unit fraction is the smallest one.
    There are infinitely many unit fractions and everyone has a name.

    ℵo have no names. Every one you name has ℵo smaller ones unnamed.

    How do you know they are unit fractions if they have no names?

    I know it from
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo (*)
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    when accepting Cantor'a actual infinity.

    Anyway, for every real x > 0 there are ℵo unit fractions between
    0 and x that do have a name.

    No. There cannot be two consecutive sets of card ℵo in ℕ. If there
    were ℵo named natnumbers, then none would remain unnamed. But (*) is
    correct.

    Perhaps there are even more unit
    fractions that don't have a name but you can't prove that there
    are any.

    They cannot be proved. They must be assumed. But your claim is incorrect because (*) is correct.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 20 11:48:25 2023
    On 12/20/23 11:26 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 20/12/2023 à 13:00, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-19 12:07:45 +0000, WM said:

    You can pick any unit fraction and say that it is the "first" in
    some sense.
    You cant pick the smallest one because no unit fraction is the
    smallest one.
    There are infinitely many unit fractions and everyone has a name.

    ℵo have no names. Every one you name has ℵo smaller ones unnamed.

    How do you know they are unit fractions if they have no names?

    I know it from
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo  (*)
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    when accepting Cantor'a actual infinity.




    Anyway, for every real x > 0 there are ℵo unit fractions between
    0 and x that do have a name.

    No. There cannot be two consecutive sets of card ℵo in ℕ. If there were ℵo named natnumbers, then none would remain unnamed. But (*) is correct.

    Note, ℵo - 1 = ℵo


    Perhaps there are even more unit
    fractions that don't have a name but you can't prove that there
    are any.

    They cannot be proved. They must be assumed. But your claim is incorrect because (*) is correct.

    Why do they need to be "assumed"

    We can show that ALL unit fractions have "names", just as all Natural
    Numbers have "names" since all Natural Numbers are created by a finite
    (but unbounded) set of operations, and thus can be given a finite name.

    Your problem is your thinking can't handle the idea of being Unbounded,
    since you can't reach the "end" of it in a finite number of steps, since
    it is BY DEFINITION Unbounded, so there is no bound to the number of
    steos to the end.


    Regards, WM



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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 20 19:52:04 2023
    On 2023-12-20 16:26:49 +0000, WM said:

    Le 20/12/2023 à 13:00, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-19 12:07:45 +0000, WM said:

    You can pick any unit fraction and say that it is the "first" in some sense.
    You cant pick the smallest one because no unit fraction is the smallest one.
    There are infinitely many unit fractions and everyone has a name.

    ℵo have no names. Every one you name has ℵo smaller ones unnamed.

    How do you know they are unit fractions if they have no names?

    I know it from
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo (*)
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0
    when accepting Cantor'a actual infinity.

    How does it follow from that?

    Anyway, for every real x > 0 there are ℵo unit fractions between
    0 and x that do have a name.

    No. There cannot be two consecutive sets of card ℵo in ℕ.

    ℕ is not a set of sets but a set of numbers.

    If there were ℵo named natnumbers, then none would remain unnamed. But
    (*) is correct.

    That does not follow. ℕ could contain ℵo named numbers and some
    unnamed numbers.

    Perhaps there are even more unit
    fractions that don't have a name but you can't prove that there
    are any.

    They cannot be proved. They must be assumed.

    It is much simpler to assume that there are none.

    But your claim is incorrect because (*) is correct.

    How would (*) imply that?

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 21 11:01:50 2023
    Le 20/12/2023 à 18:52, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-20 16:26:49 +0000, WM said:

    ℕ is not a set of sets but a set of numbers.

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then nothing
    could follow.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 21 13:50:56 2023
    On 2023-12-21 11:01:50 +0000, WM said:

    Le 20/12/2023 à 18:52, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-20 16:26:49 +0000, WM said:

    ℕ is not a set of sets but a set of numbers.

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then nothing
    could follow.

    Why not?

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Fri Dec 22 16:30:06 2023
    Le 21/12/2023 à 12:50, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-21 11:01:50 +0000, WM said:

    ℕ is not a set of sets but a set of numbers.

    In ZFC everything is a set.

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then nothing
    could follow.

    Why not?

    After ℵo numbers no finite number can follow.

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    So you withdraw your claim?

    Retgards, WM

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  • From Mikko@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 23 12:01:36 2023
    On 2023-12-22 16:30:06 +0000, WM said:

    Le 21/12/2023 à 12:50, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-21 11:01:50 +0000, WM said:

    ℕ is not a set of sets but a set of numbers.

    In ZFC everything is a set.

    Some other theories allow (or even require) urelements.

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then nothing
    could follow.

    Why not?

    After ℵo numbers no finite number can follow.

    But transfinite and hyperfinite numbers can.

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    So you withdraw your claim?

    What claim do you mean? The existence of "dark" numbers was your claim,
    if that is what you mean.

    Mikko

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 26 10:02:26 2023
    Le 23/12/2023 à 11:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-22 16:30:06 +0000, WM said:

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then nothing >>>> could follow.

    Why not?

    After ℵo numbers no finite number can follow.

    But transfinite and hyperfinite numbers can.

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    So you withdraw your claim?

    What claim do you mean?

    Natural numbers following upon a set of ℵo natural numbers.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Tue Dec 26 21:29:49 2023
    On 12/26/23 5:02 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 23/12/2023 à 11:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-22 16:30:06 +0000, WM said:

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then
    nothing could follow.

    Why not?

    After ℵo numbers no finite number can follow.

    But transfinite and hyperfinite numbers can.

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    So you withdraw your claim?

    What claim do you mean?

    Natural numbers following upon a set of ℵo natural numbers.

    Regards, WM



    All of which are Ordinary Natural Numbers, all finitely definable,
    usable and nameable, thus none of them are "Dark"

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 27 09:24:26 2023
    Le 27/12/2023 à 03:29, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/26/23 5:02 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 23/12/2023 à 11:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-22 16:30:06 +0000, WM said:

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then
    nothing could follow.

    Why not?

    After ℵo numbers no finite number can follow.

    But transfinite and hyperfinite numbers can.

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    So you withdraw your claim?

    What claim do you mean?

    Natural numbers following upon a set of ℵo natural numbers.

    All of which are Ordinary Natural Numbers, all finitely definable,
    usable and nameable, thus none of them are "Dark"

    ℵo natural numbers follow upon every definable number. Hence they are undefined and remain undefinable.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 27 08:37:36 2023
    On 12/27/23 4:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 27/12/2023 à 03:29, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/26/23 5:02 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 23/12/2023 à 11:01, Mikko a écrit :
    On 2023-12-22 16:30:06 +0000, WM said:

    But if there were a subset of ℵo nameable numbers first then
    nothing could follow.

    Why not?

    After ℵo numbers no finite number can follow.

    But transfinite and hyperfinite numbers can.

    Anyway, nothing needn't follow so that is not a problem.

    So you withdraw your claim?

    What claim do you mean?

    Natural numbers following upon a set of ℵo natural numbers.

    All of which are Ordinary Natural Numbers, all finitely definable,
    usable and nameable, thus none of them are "Dark"

    ℵo natural numbers follow upon every definable number. Hence they are undefined and remain undefinable.

    Regards, WM



    Except that they all are definable, as I have previously shown.

    Thus, again, you LIE, showing your stupidity.

    given the "definable" number n, the ℵo numbers after it are

    n+1, n+2, n+3, ... which gives us the definition of all of the numbers,
    each of which can be individually named.

    If your logic can't handle that definition, it can't handle Natual
    Numbers and thus isn't usable here, which is what you are just proving.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 27 19:19:07 2023
    Le 27/12/2023 à 14:37, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/27/23 4:24 AM, WM wrote:

    ℵo natural numbers follow upon every definable number. Hence they are
    undefined and remain undefinable.

    Except that they all are definable, as I have previously shown.

    Define one natnumber that has not ℵo undefined successors. That is not possible because
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.
    It is possible however to exhaust all natural numbers collectively, such
    that no successors remain,
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 27 15:03:55 2023
    On 12/27/23 2:19 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 27/12/2023 à 14:37, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/27/23 4:24 AM, WM wrote:

    ℵo natural numbers follow upon every definable number. Hence they are
    undefined and remain undefinable.

    Except that they all are definable, as I have previously shown.

    Define one natnumber that has not ℵo undefined successors. That is not possible because
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_def: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo.
    It is possible however to exhaust all natural numbers collectively, such
    that no successors remain,
    |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ...}| = 0.

    Regards, WM



    Why does there need to be a Natural Number that has less than ℵo
    successors? That is just a basic property of unbounded sets.

    Note, ALL Natural Numbers have NO "Undefined" successors, as all the
    successors are defined (by the unbounded application of the successor operator).

    All the Natural Numbers are also nameable individually.

    You only run into your problems if you try to use bounded logic to talk
    about them, which you try to do, showing your ignorance of Number Theory.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 27 22:10:58 2023
    Le 27/12/2023 à 21:03, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Why does there need to be a Natural Number that has less than ℵo successors?

    Collectively you can take all natural numbers with no successors
    remaining.
    When you want prove that all natural numbers cannot only be taken
    collectively but can be named individually, then you must do it with no successors remaining.

    All the Natural Numbers are also nameable individually.

    Show that none remains.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Dec 27 21:58:29 2023
    On 12/27/23 5:10 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 27/12/2023 à 21:03, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Why does there need to be a Natural Number that has less than ℵo
    successors?

    Collectively you can take all natural numbers with no successors remaining. When you want prove that all natural numbers cannot only be taken collectively but can be named individually, then you must do it with no successors remaining.

    All the Natural Numbers are also nameable individually.

    Show that none remains.

    Regards, WM


    It comes out of the basis number theory definition of the Natural
    Numbers, that they are the set created by the starting number 0, plus
    all the number generated by the successor function Sx that genertes the
    number x+1. Thus any Natural Number n can be names as n Ses then 0, as
    in: 0, S0, SS0, SSS0, ...
    IF it can't be named that way, it isn't a "Natural Number".

    Thus, ALL Natural Numbers have a name.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 28 10:58:25 2023
    Le 28/12/2023 à 03:58, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Thus any Natural Number n can be names as n Ses then 0, as
    in: 0, S0, SS0, SSS0, ...

    "..." is naming collectively.

    IF it can't be named that way, it isn't a "Natural Number".

    Thus, ALL Natural Numbers have a name.

    Of course all natural numbers differ from each other by at least one unit
    or S. But every name that you choose will leave almost all natural numbers unchosen.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 28 08:18:00 2023
    On 12/28/23 5:58 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 28/12/2023 à 03:58, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Thus any Natural Number n can be names as n Ses then 0, as in: 0, S0,
    SS0, SSS0, ...

    "..." is naming collectively.

    No, it is showing an infinite set.


    IF it can't be named that way, it isn't a "Natural Number".

    Thus, ALL Natural Numbers have a name.

    Of course all natural numbers differ from each other by at least one
    unit or S. But every name that you choose will leave almost all natural numbers unchosen.

    Regards, WM


    Which is just the differnce between naming ANY Natural Number and ALL
    Natural Numbers.

    Naming, being a finite operation, of course can not symoltaneously name
    all the elements of an infinite set, even if all the members of that set
    are individually nameable.

    You are just stuck in a logic system that can not handle that property.

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Dec 28 09:51:13 2023
    On 12/28/23 5:58 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 28/12/2023 à 03:58, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Thus any Natural Number n can be names as n Ses then 0, as in: 0, S0,
    SS0, SSS0, ...

    "..." is naming collectively.

    IF it can't be named that way, it isn't a "Natural Number".

    Thus, ALL Natural Numbers have a name.

    Of course all natural numbers differ from each other by at least one
    unit or S. But every name that you choose will leave almost all natural numbers unchosen.

    Regards, WM

    Of course, because it only names 1 number.

    Somehow you think that is a problem,

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    You seem to be having problems using the right qualifier.

    You can't use "All" and "Individually" together in an infinte set the
    way you seem to be trying.

    Your logic is just broken.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 30 12:21:28 2023
    Le 28/12/2023 à 15:51, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    They are not visible. But they are there like dark energy. All we can see
    are numbers with FISONs
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo having ℵo dark
    successors.

    You seem to be having problems using the right qualifier.

    What qualifiers do you know?

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 30 11:43:21 2023
    On 12/30/23 7:21 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 28/12/2023 à 15:51, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    They are not visible. But they are there like dark energy. All we can
    see are numbers with FISONs
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo having ℵo dark successors.

    But we can name all the successors, so they are not "dark"


    You seem to be having problems using the right qualifier.

    What qualifiers do you know?


    THere are Universal Qualifiers, say that something is true for ALL or
    NONE of the elements of the set, and there are Existential Qualifiers
    that state tha there exist with (or without) a given property.

    Some logics also add additional qualifiers like "Most", or "Almost All"
    and the like.

    Regards, WM



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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Sat Dec 30 18:09:55 2023
    On 30.12.2023 17:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/30/23 7:21 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 28/12/2023 à 15:51, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    They are not visible. But they are there like dark energy. All we can
    see are numbers with FISONs
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo having ℵo dark successors.

    But we can name all the successors, so they are not "dark"

    Try it!

    You seem to be having problems using the right qualifier.

    What qualifiers do you know?

    THere are Universal Qualifiers, say that something is true for ALL or
    NONE of the elements of the set, and there are Existential Qualifiers
    that state tha there exist with (or without) a given property.

    I know only quantifiers of that sort.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 30 12:32:38 2023
    On 12/30/23 12:09 PM, WM wrote:
    On 30.12.2023 17:43, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 12/30/23 7:21 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 28/12/2023 à 15:51, Richard Damon a écrit :

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    They are not visible. But they are there like dark energy. All we can
    see are numbers with FISONs
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo having ℵo dark successors.

    But we can name all the successors, so they are not "dark"

    Try it!


    I did.

    I showed the naming formula.

    Thus, it exists.

    The remainder set is:

    n+1, n+2, n+3, ... n+k, ...

    and since k can have any value from 1, 2, 3, ... and be a natural number
    with a name, the elements of the remaider set.

    Thus, while is has ℵo successors, they are all "Visible" and eligable to
    have been chosen as the starting n.

    Thus, none of them were "dark".

    You have admitted that you can't even use the dark numbers in a
    collection of JUST them, so they just don't actually exist.


    You seem to be having problems using the right qualifier.

    What qualifiers do you know?

    THere are Universal Qualifiers, say that something is true for ALL or
    NONE of the elements of the set, and there are Existential Qualifiers
    that state tha there exist with (or without) a given property.

    I know only quantifiers of that sort.

    Then why do you have so much trouble using them?

    You claim existance for things that you can not actually prove exist.

    You do not understand that when it is defined that for ALL Natural
    Numbers, they are defined by a finite sequence of steps, which thus
    provides a finite name for them, that it means that all are namable, and
    thus none can be dark.

    You seem to think that there exists something that doesn't have a
    property of ALL of the elements of a set have.


    Regards, WM


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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 30 19:21:39 2023
    Le 30/12/2023 à 18:32, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/30/23 12:09 PM, WM wrote:

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    They are not visible. But they are there like dark energy. All we can
    see are numbers with FISONs
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo having ℵo dark successors.

    But we can name all the successors, so they are not "dark"

    Try it!

    I did.

    I showed the naming formula.

    This formula concerns the collection, not any individual. To name an
    individual you have to insert a name.

    Thus, while is has ℵo successors, they are all "Visible" and eligable to have been chosen as the starting n.

    The successors are not visible. Remember that you cannot distinguish ℵo
    unit fractions by any choice of an x > 0.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sat Dec 30 14:42:00 2023
    On 12/30/23 2:21 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 30/12/2023 à 18:32, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/30/23 12:09 PM, WM wrote:

    Where do you see a number that can't be named coming up?

    They are not visible. But they are there like dark energy. All we
    can see are numbers with FISONs
    ∀n ∈ ℕ_vis: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo having ℵo dark successors.

    But we can name all the successors, so they are not "dark"

    Try it!

    I did.

    I showed the naming formula.

    This formula concerns the collection, not any individual. To name an individual you have to insert a name.


    But you can only name a "Collection" with a formula, that gives each of
    the individuals by name.

    Thus, while is has ℵo successors, they are all "Visible" and eligable
    to have been chosen as the starting n.

    The successors are not visible. Remember that you cannot distinguish ℵo unit fractions by any choice of an x > 0.

    Of course I can, and DID.

    Remember, you use formula that gives each member a name to name all of a
    set.

    You are just stuck on using finite logic and trying to apply it to an
    infinite set.

    This shows that you are not ready to handle such sets.


    Regards, WM

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 31 09:54:22 2023
    Le 30/12/2023 à 20:42, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/30/23 2:21 PM, WM wrote:

    The successors are not visible. Remember that you cannot distinguish ℵo
    unit fractions by any choice of an x > 0.

    Of course I can, and DID.

    If there are ℵo unit fractions before every, any, all x > 0, how will
    you distinguish them by x > 0?

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Sun Dec 31 07:46:09 2023
    On 12/31/23 4:54 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 30/12/2023 à 20:42, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/30/23 2:21 PM, WM wrote:

    The successors are not visible. Remember that you cannot distinguish
    ℵo unit fractions by any choice of an x > 0.

    Of course I can, and DID.

    If there are ℵo unit fractions before every, any, all x > 0, how will
    you distinguish them by x > 0?

    Regards, WM

    I've told you, but appaerently your mind is like a sieve.

    Given x, find n such that 1/(n+1) < x <= 1/n, which can be done for ALL
    x in (0, 1]. (for x > 1, just let n = 0)

    Then the ℵo unit fractions less than x are the set:

    1/(n+1), 1/(n+2), 1/(n+3), 1/(n+4), ... 1/(n+k), ...

    for all k that are elements of the natural numbers (excluding 0).

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Mon Jan 1 15:29:56 2024
    Le 31/12/2023 à 13:46, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/31/23 4:54 AM, WM wrote:

    If there are ℵo unit fractions before every, any, all x > 0, how will
    you distinguish them by x > 0?

    Given x, find n such that 1/(n+1) < x <= 1/n, which can be done for ALL
    x in (0, 1].

    But not for all 1/n. Note that ℵo unit fractions are before every given
    x.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Mon Jan 1 10:37:45 2024
    On 1/1/24 10:29 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 31/12/2023 à 13:46, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 12/31/23 4:54 AM, WM wrote:

    If there are ℵo unit fractions before every, any, all x > 0, how will
    you distinguish them by x > 0?

    Given x, find n such that  1/(n+1) < x <= 1/n, which can be done for
    ALL x in (0, 1].

    But not for all 1/n. Note that ℵo unit fractions are before every given x.

    Regards, WM



    If you say "not all" then name the exception.

    If you can't, you are just admitting to making a false statement.

    "Not All" SPECIFICALLY requires that there be a member of the set that
    doesn't meet the requirement, and that member can be named to show its existance.

    ALL members of the set 1/n have BY DEFINITION a natural number n they
    are based on, and all natural numbers are constructable with a finite
    number of steps, and thus can be named by that procedure.

    Also, the claim isn't for all n, but for all x, can you find an x that
    doesn't have an n?

    You are just painting yourself into a corner.

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Mon Jan 1 14:30:04 2024
    On 1/1/2024 10:37 AM, Richard Damon wrote:
    On 1/1/24 10:29 AM, WM wrote:

    ...]

    "Not All" SPECIFICALLY requires that
    there be a member of the set that
    doesn't meet the requirement,

    Yes.

    and that member can be named
    to show its existance.

    No.

    There are at most countably.many names.
    We can describe and reason about
    more than countably.many.

    I expect that you're familiar with
    examples of describing and reasoning about
    more than countably.many.
    Not enough names exist for all of them.

    I would like to suggest a different way
    to think about this.

    There is a simple fact about descriptions
    which is perhaps _too_ simple to seem important.
    In my opinion, that too.simple fact is
    a cornerstone of our finite exploration
    of infinity.

    P(x) is a finite.length claim about x
    P(x) can be true in infinitely.many ways.
    x can make P(x) correct by referring to
    any one of infinitely.many different objects.
    And yet, expressing P(x) is still
    a finite.length action, with the grasp of
    finite beings, at least in principle.
    And true in infinitely.many ways.


    Some claims we know are true in each of
    the ways we intend them to be true
    because
    we know that's what we intend.
    We know that the thing discussed in
    the Pythagorean theorem has
    three corners and a right angle
    because
    we know we're discussing right triangles.

    That's easy, but still important.
    Laying corner stones, so to speak.


    Some claims we know are true in each of
    the ways we intend them to be true
    because
    we can see that all of the claims are
    not.first.false in each of the ways.

    Getting all of the claims to
    be not.first.false is not easy.
    It is the impressive part of mathematics,
    whereby mathematicians show off
    their galaxy-sized brains.
    It is still a finite action, though.

    All of the claims not.first.false
    is sufficient because,
    in a finite sequence,
    if any claim is false,
    some claim is first.false.
    If no claim is first.false,
    then no claim is false.

    And being.not.first.false is
    something we can _see_
    sometimes, in some sequences of claims.

    and that member can be named
    to show its existance.

    Not required.
    We can say something true of each one
    without naming each one.
    We can make further claims
    not-first-false of each one
    without naming each one.

    ALL members of the set 1/n have BY DEFINITION
    a natural number n they are based on,
    and all natural numbers are constructable with
    a finite number of steps,
    and thus can be named by that procedure.

    Yes,
    and that is interesting.
    But there are other things for which
    that isn't true.

    For the method by which we explore
    the properties of these other things,
    not.all.nameable doesn't give us difficulties.

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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jan 2 19:33:36 2024
    Le 01/01/2024 à 20:30, Jim Burns a écrit :
    On 1/1/2024 10:37 AM, Richard Damon wrote:

    ALL members of the set 1/n have BY DEFINITION
    a natural number n they are based on,
    and all natural numbers are constructable with
    a finite number of steps,
    and thus can be named by that procedure.

    No. After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jan 2 15:05:25 2024
    On 1/2/2024 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 01/01/2024 à 20:30, Jim Burns a écrit :
    On 1/1/2024 10:37 AM, Richard Damon wrote:

    ALL members of the set 1/n have BY DEFINITION
    a natural number n they are based on,
    and all natural numbers are constructable with
    a finite number of steps,
    and thus can be named by that procedure.

    No.
    After all constructed natnumbers
    there are almost all natnumbers.

    After all
    cardinals which.can.change.by.1
    there are only
    cardinals which.CANNOT.change.by.1.

    It is contradictory for
    a cardinal which.can.change.by.1
    and
    a cardinal which.CANNOT.change.by.1.
    to be apart by 1.

    ----
    By starting from contradictory claims,
    we can reason to any conclusion.

    There might be those who find that appealing.
    Pick whatever your intuition gives you,
    and then reason there from a contradiction.
    One never needs to admit to error.

    However,
    that method only "works" as long as
    one doesn't care about being correct.
    Do not ride in any airplane designed by
    an engineer who "solves" problems this way.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Tue Jan 2 17:40:36 2024
    On 1/2/2024 4:23 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On Tuesday, January 2, 2024
    at 12:05:30 PM UTC-8, Jim Burns wrote:

    After all
    cardinals which.can.change.by.1
    there are only
    cardinals which.CANNOT.change.by.1.

    It is contradictory for
    a cardinal which.can.change.by.1
    and
    a cardinal which.CANNOT.change.by.1.
    to be apart by 1.

    There are various models of
    large numbers and infinite [numbers],
    about fragments and parts,
    that there are
    models of numbers with none infinite and
    models of integers with many.

    It matters a very great deal which,
    in a particular instance, are
    the numbers, etc we are talking about.

    (1)
    Whether we are able to communicate matters,
    and
    I don't see how to overstate how important
    using the same words the same way
    is to that goal.

    (2)
    A particular method used widely,
    making claims descriptively true of each and
    making claims not.first.false of each,
    is unworkable if we blur _what each are_

    Here, in this instance,
    I am interested in the distinction between
    cardinals which.can.change.by.1 and
    cardinals which.CANNOT.change.by.1

    That distinction seems to shine a light
    on several issues that the other poster (WM)
    sees as needing better explanation.


    Yes,
    there are these other models,
    other numbers, in one sense.

    However, in another sense,
    no, there aren't.
    Not in this discussion.
    If we can't restrict
    what we're talking about to
    what we're talking about,
    discussion is effectively impossible.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Tue Jan 2 18:59:29 2024
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    Le 01/01/2024 à 20:30, Jim Burns a écrit :
    On 1/1/2024 10:37 AM, Richard Damon wrote:

    ALL members of the set 1/n have BY DEFINITION
    a natural number n they are based on,
    and all natural numbers are constructable with
    a finite number of steps,
    and thus can be named by that procedure.

    No. After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    Regards, WM


    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    By your logic, there must be one, just like there must be a lowest Unit Fraction.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 3 10:24:27 2024
    Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    That depends on the system.

    By your logic, there must be one,

    Yes, but it can be surpassed.

    Regards, WM

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  • From Jim Burns@21:1/5 to Ross Finlayson on Wed Jan 3 06:09:00 2024
    On 1/2/2024 8:41 PM, Ross Finlayson wrote:
    On Tuesday, January 2, 2024
    at 3:59:34 PM UTC-8, Richard Damon wrote:

    [...]

    Actually
    it's by Russell's logic that
    a set of all sets that don't contain themselves,
    like a model of all finite ordinals,
    contains itself.

    (Yeah, I know
    ordinary set theory sticks its head in the sand
    and reckons the grains from there.)

    Is it sticking one's head in the sand
    to proceed as though
    what one says means
    what one intends it to mean?

    If it is, I stick my head in the sand.
    The only alternative to that which I see
    is to utterly stop trying to communicate,
    and I haven't given up all hope, not yet.


    Ordinals are well ordered by '∈' or
    they aren't ordinals, because
    that is what we mean by "ordinal".

    No ordinal is self.containing
    because
    no ordinal is first self.containing.

    A first self.containing ordinal
    cannot precede itself, being first, but
    must precede itself, being self.containing.

    Ordinal ω is the set of only
    all non.self.containing _finite_ ordinals.

    ω is not the set of only
    all non.self.containing ordinals.
    because
    ω ∌ ω


    I don't think we can avoid that conclusion
    without changing what "ordinal" means.

    Changing what "ordinal" means
    doesn't really avoid that conclusion, either
    We merely can't call what it's true for
    "ordinals".
    It's true for shmordinals, though.


    Is
    pulling one's head from the sand
    what you're calling
    disproof by shifting definitions or axioms?

    If it is,
    the reason we keep our heads in the sand
    is that the alternative you offer
    is pointless, changing nothing, really.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 3 07:08:23 2024
    On 1/3/24 5:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    That depends on the system.

    Really?

    Where do you get that from?

    Are you using some "dark" definition of the Natural Numbers, because
    your heart is filled with darkness, and the truth is not in you?

    Remember, the Natural Numbers are defined by the set of the starting
    number, called zero, and then adding to the se the successor of any
    number that was in the set, and just keep repeating.

    What number can't have its successor found?



    By your logic, there must be one,

    Yes, but it can be surpassed.

    Regards, WM



    And how is that not taking its successor, and thus that successor is a
    Natural Numbers.


    You just seem to be admitting that you aren't talking about the actual
    "Natural Numbers" but some perversion of them.

    In other words, you are just admitting to lying.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 4 10:46:23 2024
    Le 03/01/2024 à 13:08, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/3/24 5:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    That depends on the system.

    Really?

    Where do you get that from?

    It is like the known prime numbers. There is a last one, temporarily.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 4 07:24:41 2024
    On 1/4/24 5:46 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 13:08, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/3/24 5:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    That depends on the system.

    Really?

    Where do you get that from?

    It is like the known prime numbers. There is a last one, temporarily.

    Regards, WM



    But there is a difference betweeh "known" and "Is".

    That is the same flaw that the idiot Olcott makes, which puts you in
    "great" company.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 4 07:59:59 2024
    On 1/4/24 5:46 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 13:08, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/3/24 5:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    That depends on the system.

    Really?

    Where do you get that from?

    It is like the known prime numbers. There is a last one, temporarily.

    Regards, WM



    And if "known" is your criteria, then, yes, most (in fact, it would be
    "almost all") Natural Numbers are "unknown" in the sense of not having
    been written down, but they are all "knowable", which isn't the case for
    the "dark" you have defined.

    So, perhaps you are just a victim of not properly defining the terms you
    are trying to use.

    Almost all Natural Numbers are unexpressed, but all are still expressible.

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 4 14:48:37 2024
    Le 04/01/2024 à 13:24, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/4/24 5:46 AM, WM wrote:

    It is like the known prime numbers. There is a last one, temporarily.

    But there is a difference betweeh "known" and "Is".

    Yes. ∀n ∈ ℕ_known: |ℕ \ {1, 2, 3, ..., n}| = ℵo unknown.

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From WM@21:1/5 to Richard Damon on Thu Jan 4 15:05:07 2024
    Richard Damon schrieb am Donnerstag, 4. Januar 2024 um 14:00:04 UTC+1:
    On 1/4/24 5:46 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 13:08, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/3/24 5:24 AM, WM wrote:
    Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59, Richard Damon a écrit :
    On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote:
    After all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers.

    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number?

    That depends on the system.

    Really?

    Where do you get that from?

    It is like the known prime numbers. There is a last one, temporarily.

    And if "known" is your criteria, then, yes, most (in fact, it would be "almost all") Natural Numbers are "unknown" in the sense of not having
    been written down,

    Right.

    but they are all "knowable",

    Not all prime numbers are knowable because the set is infinite but always
    only a finite set can be known.

    So, perhaps you are just a victim of not properly defining the terms you
    are trying to use.

    Almost all Natural Numbers are unexpressed, but all are still expressible.

    That is counterfactual credo in absurdum. It is useless to talk to people
    who are so anti-mathematical. EOD

    Regards, WM

    --- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
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  • From Richard Damon@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 4 19:58:16 2024
    On 1/4/24 10:05 AM, WM wrote:
    Richard Damon schrieb am Donnerstag, 4. Januar 2024 um 14:00:04 UTC+1:
    On 1/4/24 5:46 AM, WM wrote: > Le 03/01/2024 à 13:08, Richard Damon a
    écrit : >> On 1/3/24 5:24 AM, WM wrote: >>> Le 03/01/2024 à 00:59,
    Richard Damon a écrit : >>>> On 1/2/24 2:33 PM, WM wrote: >>>>> After
    all constructed natnumbers there are almost all natnumbers. >>>>> >>>>
    So, what is the last constructed Natural Number? >>> >>> That depends
    on the system. >> >> Really? >> >> Where do you get that from? > > It
    is like the known prime numbers. There is a last one, temporarily. >
    And if "known" is your criteria, then, yes, most (in fact, it would be
    "almost all") Natural Numbers are "unknown" in the sense of not having
    been written down,

    Right.

    but they are all "knowable",

    Not all prime numbers are knowable because the set is infinite but
    always only a finite set can be known.

    Right, the set in not knowable in totality, but every individual one it.

    Your are confusing the SET with the MEMBER.


    So, perhaps you are just a victim of not properly defining the terms
    you are trying to use.
    Almost all Natural Numbers are unexpressed, but all are still
    expressible.

    That is counterfactual credo in absurdum. It is useless to talk to
    people who are so anti-mathematical. EOD

    Regards, WM


    Nope,

    YOU are the one that has gone to absurdum.

    You are just proving your stupidity.

    Your own state of knowledge has gone "dark".


    Note, just repeating false statements and then saying that is the end of
    the discussion doesn't "prove" your point.

    You need to show the actual point of error in the theory you claim to be refuting, not just "make up" a counter claim that you can't actually show.

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