The article "Missing matter found in the cosmic web" in Nature of 21
June 2018 (See https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-018-05432-2)
Starts with the following sentence: "We live in a dark Universe: just 5%
of it consists of ordinary matter such as that found in atoms, whereas
the rest is `dark' matter and energy that cannot currently be detected directly" The word dark is written within '' indicating doubt.
Accordingly to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dark_matter: "In the
standard Lambda-CDM model of cosmology, the total mass-energy of the
universe contains 4.9% ordinary matter and energy, 26.8% dark matter and 68.3% of an unknown form of energy known as dark energy. Thus, dark
matter constitutes 84.5% of total mass, while dark energy plus dark
matter constitute 95.1% of total mass-energy content."
Next we read in the nature article: "However, observations of the nearby Universe suggest that up to 40% of this ordinary matter---which is made
up primarily of particles known as baryons---is missing" This is a
strange twist. What we observe/measure are 1) galaxy rotation curves and
2) an expanding universe. What we also observe is 3) stars and baryonic matter throughout the universe. However the amount found as #3 is not
enough to explain #1 and #2. To solve this issue we introduced the
concepts of dark (missing) matter and dark energy.
And this missing
matter is supposed to be nonbaryonic.
However accoringly to Wikipedia there is also a Missing baryon problem.
See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Missing_baryon_problem. That means
there are two problems: 1) A dark matter problem and 2) a Missing baryon problem.
(In reality there are more issues: CMBR and BB
nucleosynthesis)
What this article indicates is that there is much more baryonic matter
in the cosmic web (Universe) as original thought. To me this seems
logical because more and more ordinary matter becomes visible because technology improves.
My question is why is newly found matter 'clasified' as a solution for problem #2 (and not #1)
Different question: Why are there two problems
in the first place?
The article "Missing matter found in the cosmic web" in Nature of 21
June 2018 (See https://www.nature.com/articles/d41586-018-05432-2)
Accordingly to https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Dark_matter: "In the
standard Lambda-CDM model of cosmology, the total mass-energy of the
universe contains 4.9% ordinary matter and energy, 26.8% dark matter and 68.3% of an unknown form of energy known as dark energy.
Next we read in the nature article: "However, observations of the nearby Universe suggest that up to 40% of this ordinary matter
---which is made up primarily of particles known as baryons---is
missing"
What we observe/measure are 1) galaxy rotation curves and
However accoringly to Wikipedia there is also a Missing baryon problem.
See: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Missing_baryon_problem.
there are two problems: 1) A dark matter problem and 2) a Missing baryon problem.
more and more ordinary matter becomes visible because technology
improves.
My question is why is newly found matter 'clasified' as a solution for problem #2 (and not #1)
Different question: Why are there two problems in the first place?
Maybe Fig 4 at page 408 shows the answer.
They mention the word Local Universe which makes everything much
more complex.
"Dark energy" is really a stupid term, modelled on "dark matter" (which[...]
does make at least some kind of sense). Substitute "cosmological
constant" as there is no evidence at all against the idea, and much for
it, that "dark energy" is just the good old cosmological constant.
"Dark energy" is really a stupid term, modelled on "dark matter" (which does make at least some kind of sense). Substitute "cosmological constant" as there is no evidence at all against the idea, and much for it, that "dark energy" is just the good old cosmological constant.[...]
Yes, but can't they simply call it "vacuum energy" as in "vacuum" displacement or polarisation when talking about eps_0 in EM?
(I confess to be a little motivated by Carlo Ovelli "Reality Is Not
What It Seems: The Journey to Quantum Gravity")
(On the other hand... calling it "cosmological constant" is also
making an implicit statement that it's trully *constant*, i.e., that
it enters into the Einstein equations in a certain way, with NO terms involving the spacetime derivatives of the "cosmological constant".
We don't know that, either. About all we know today is its average
value over the past 10^10-or-so years. We probably won't know much
about its time variation or lack thereof for another decade.)
Dark energy, the remaining 68%, is something different still. There
is little evidence for what it is, but all the evidence I'm aware of
is consistent with its being a cosmological constant. I personally
have no problem with that. The cosmological constant has to have
_some_ value, and there's no reason that value must be zero.
On 2018-07-12, Steve Willner <willner@cfa.harvard.edu> wrote:
Dark energy, the remaining 68%, is something different still. There
is little evidence for what it is, but all the evidence I'm aware of
is consistent with its being a cosmological constant. I personally
have no problem with that. The cosmological constant has to have
_some_ value, and there's no reason that value must be zero.
Nice summary in general, just want to comment on this... you can take
the position it should be zero unless you have a reason for it.
Fitting
the data is well enough (but I've seen that go wrong many times in
plasma physics where the underlying asumption of the thing and its cause
both being totally wrong and the community taking >20 years to wake up
to it).
I take the position that zero is a reasonable a priori assumption,
but that if it has a value there should be a reason for it (ie, why is
it not very large).
It may be like the photon mass, so small as not to
rock the boat with a theory in which it is zero and which is successful
for anything else which is known (at least below whatever it is... 5 MeV
or so for the nonlinearity in the electron scattering cross section).
Do we have solid evidence that it is _different from zero_
and if so
what does the curvature of the universe have to be?
I guess if we say
68 percent of the curvature is due to the quoted dark energy fitting
then this should be something. I think if we know enough it may be a property of space-time rather than a species of field/particle... but
I guess this is the same thing as "cosmological constant".
(does this follow from universe accelaration as per the supernovae observations from 20 years ago? but that's negative curvature isn't it)
Do we have solid evidence that it is _different from zero_
and if so what does the curvature of the universe have to be?
I guess [dark energy] is the same thing as "cosmological constant".
In article <slrnpo07t9.vfi.bds@macbook-air-3.local>,
Bruce Scott <bds@ipp.mpg.de> writes:
Do we have solid evidence that it is _different from zero_
If by "it" you mean dark energy, yes. There are three independent
lines of evidence: the CMB fluctuations, the SN distances, and baryon acoustic oscillations. All three agree on the values within their
respective uncertainties.
and if so what does the curvature of the universe have to be?
The universe is flat to within 0.5% or so.
I guess [dark energy] is the same thing as "cosmological constant".
The term "dark energy" means something like a cosmological constant
but allows for a more general case where the (negative) pressure
varies with time. So far there is no evidence it does.
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