"Moreover, if light consists of particles, as Einstein had suggested in his paper submitted just thirteen weeks before this one, the second principle seems absurd: A stone thrown from a speeding train can do far more damage than one thrown from a train
at rest; the speed of the particle is not independent of the motion of the object emitting it. And if we take light to consist of particles and assume that these particles obey Newton's laws, they will conform to Newtonian relativity and thus
automatically account for the null result of the Michelson-Morley experiment without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations. Yet, as we have seen, Einstein resisted the temptation to account for the null result in terms
of particles of light and simple, familiar Newtonian ideas, and introduced as his second postulate something that was more or less obvious when thought of in terms of waves in an ether." Banesh Hoffmann, Relativity and Its Roots, p.92
https://www.amazon.
com/Relativity-Its-Roots-Banesh-Hoffmann/dp/0486406768
So, "without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations", the Michelson-Morley experiment is compatible with Newton's variable speed of light, c'=c±v. In other words, if in 1887 Michelson and Morley had placed c'=c±v in
their calculations, they would have predicted a null result and the experiment would have confirmed the prediction.
Is the Michelson-Morley experiment, "without recourse to contracting lengths, local time, or Lorentz transformations", compatible with the constant (independent of the speed of the source) speed of light, c'=c, posited by the ether theory and later "
borrowed" by Einstein? Any sane scientist knows that this is impossible. Michelson and Morley did place c'=c in their calculations and predicted a non-null result refuted by the experiment. Only after Lorentz & Co introduced, ad hoc, "contracting lengths"
did the null result become compatible with c'=c.
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