I know that, in computing the RMD, I can
aggregate the value of all traditional IRAs and
the total of my withdrawals must be at least
the RMD on that aggregate.

The basis in my traditional IRA is zero.

If I roll a chunk of that into an individual
retirement annuity(*), by having my IRA
custodian transfer the money directly to the
insurance company, is that taken out of the RMD
equation? In other words, do I compute an RMD
based on the money _not_ in the annuity, and no
part of the annuity payouts will count as part
of that RMD?

(*) A single premium immediate annuity, with a
fixed annual payout for my life only, if that
matters.


--
Stan Brown, Tehachapi, California, USA
https://BrownMath.com/
Shikata ga nai...

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According to Stan Brown <the_stan_brown@fastmail.fm>:

If I roll a chunk of that into an individual
retirement annuity(*), by having my IRA
custodian transfer the money directly to the
insurance company, is that taken out of the RMD
equation?

It says here that the payment from the annuity is the RMD for the
annuity, so the answer is yes, you compute the RMD for the IRA on
what's left in the IRA.

https://www.whitecoatinvestor.com/individual-retirement-annuity-the-solution-to-the-spia-rmd-dilemma

--
Regards,
John Levine, johnl@taugh.com, Primary Perpetrator of "The Internet for Dummies",
Please consider the environment before reading this e-mail. https://jl.ly

--
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>
<< The foregoing was not intended or written to be used, >>
<< nor can it used, for the purpose of avoiding penalties >>
<< that may be imposed upon the taxpayer. >>
<< >>
<< The Charter and the Guidelines for submitting posts >>
<< to this newsgroup as well as our anti-spamming policy >>
<< are at www.asktax.org. >>
<< Copyright (2011) - All rights reserved. >>
<< ------------------------------------------------------- >>

--- SoupGate-Win32 v1.05
* Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)