• Presidential veto powers

    From Mike Anderson@21:1/5 to All on Tue Feb 8 06:55:37 2022
    https://www.senate.gov/reference/reference_index_subjects/Vetoes_vrd.htm

    "The power of the President to refuse to approve a bill or joint
    resolution and thus prevent its enactment into law is the veto. The
    president has ten days (excluding Sundays) to sign a bill passed by
    Congress. A regular veto occurs when the President returns the
    legislation to the house in which it originated, usually with a message explaining the rationale for the veto. This veto can be overridden only
    by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate and the House. If this occurs,
    the bill becomes law over the President's objections. A pocket veto
    occurs when Congress adjourns during the ten-day period. The president
    cannot return the bill to Congress. The president's decision not to sign
    the legislation is a pocket veto and Congress does not have the
    opportunity to override."

    A few things here:

    (1)
    Can Congress re-pass, with no wording at all, a bill that had previously
    been vetoed? I.e. could they just keep re-passing a bill that POTUS has explicitly signed a veto, hoping he will eventually cave and sign it? Or
    maybe at the time of the first passing of it, POTUS said "no, because of
    XYZ happening right now" but then they wait a month and now XYZ is no
    longer happening and they're hoping now POTUS will be more agreeable?
    Or, if it was a pocket veto, basically pass it again when they re-convene?

    (2)
    Assuming they can re-pass it as-is, but with some qualifiers, if they
    passed it, say, on Aug 1st and then left town on Aug 8th (for Labor
    Day), when they got back on Sept 6th, could they re-pass it on Sept
    10th? If they can't re-pass it as-is at any time, what about if they
    passed it on Dec 20th and the new congress convenes on Jan 3rd? Can the
    NEW congress then pass it on Jan 5th as-is?

    (3)
    If they can't re-pass it as-is at all, how much changes need to be in it
    to allow them to do so? I.e. let's say it was a bill to take 1,000,000
    acres of land and create a national park and the bill ran 100 pages
    (they were tired that day and didn't want to get overly wordy, ya know?)
    Would having the exact same text except that it's now 999,999 acres (and
    a change to the text for the specifications of the boundary to fit the
    new size) be enough of a change?

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Tue Feb 8 08:39:08 2022
    On 2/8/2022 6:55 AM, Mike Anderson wrote:
    https://www.senate.gov/reference/reference_index_subjects/Vetoes_vrd.htm

    "The power of the President to refuse to approve a bill or joint
    resolution and thus prevent its enactment into law is the veto. The
    president has ten days (excluding Sundays) to sign a bill passed by
    Congress. A regular veto occurs when the President returns the
    legislation to the house in which it originated, usually with a message explaining the rationale for the veto. This veto can be overridden only
    by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate and the House. If this occurs,
    the bill becomes law over the President's objections. A pocket veto
    occurs when Congress adjourns during the ten-day period. The president
    cannot return the bill to Congress. The president's decision not to sign
    the legislation is a pocket veto and Congress does not have the
    opportunity to override."

    A few things here:

    (1)
    Can Congress re-pass, with no wording at all, a bill that had previously
    been vetoed? I.e. could they just keep re-passing a bill that POTUS has explicitly signed a veto, hoping he will eventually cave and sign it? Or maybe at the time of the first passing of it, POTUS said "no, because of
    XYZ happening right now" but then they wait a month and now XYZ is no
    longer happening and they're hoping now POTUS will be more agreeable?
    Or, if it was a pocket veto, basically pass it again when they re-convene?

    (2)
    Assuming they can re-pass it as-is, but with some qualifiers, if they
    passed it, say, on Aug 1st and then left town on Aug 8th (for Labor
    Day), when they got back on Sept 6th, could they re-pass it on Sept
    10th? If they can't re-pass it as-is at any time, what about if they
    passed it on Dec 20th and the new congress convenes on Jan 3rd? Can the
    NEW congress then pass it on Jan 5th as-is?

    (3)
    If they can't re-pass it as-is at all, how much changes need to be in it
    to allow them to do so? I.e. let's say it was a bill to take 1,000,000
    acres of land and create a national park and the bill ran 100 pages
    (they were tired that day and didn't want to get overly wordy, ya know?) Would having the exact same text except that it's now 999,999 acres (and
    a change to the text for the specifications of the boundary to fit the
    new size) be enough of a change?


    Congress can re-pass the bill the very same day that the President
    vetoes it. Or they can wait a while and then re-pass it.Or wait until
    the next session of Congress and re-pass it.

    It's entirely up to Congress. The Constitution puts no limits on when or
    why Congress can pass a bill and send it to the President. It simply
    says that Sundays do not count toward the 10 day period that the
    President has to decide what to do about the bill.

    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to Mike Anderson on Tue Feb 8 13:58:57 2022
    "Mike Anderson" wrote in message news:stts8k$dkn$1@dont-email.me...

    https://www.senate.gov/reference/reference_index_subjects/Vetoes_vrd.htm

    "The power of the President to refuse to approve a bill or joint resolution >and thus prevent its enactment into law is the veto. The president has ten >days (excluding Sundays) to sign a bill passed by Congress. A regular veto >occurs when the President returns the legislation to the house in which it >originated, usually with a message explaining the rationale for the veto. >This veto can be overridden only by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate
    and the House. If this occurs, the bill becomes law over the President's >objections. A pocket veto occurs when Congress adjourns during the ten-day >period. The president cannot return the bill to Congress. The president's >decision not to sign the legislation is a pocket veto and Congress does not >have the opportunity to override."

    A few things here:

    (1)
    Can Congress re-pass, with no wording at all, a bill that had previously
    been vetoed? I.e. could they just keep re-passing a bill that POTUS has >explicitly signed a veto, hoping he will eventually cave and sign it? Or >maybe at the time of the first passing of it, POTUS said "no, because of
    XYZ happening right now" but then they wait a month and now XYZ is no
    longer happening and they're hoping now POTUS will be more agreeable? Or,
    if it was a pocket veto, basically pass it again when they re-convene?

    (2)
    Assuming they can re-pass it as-is, but with some qualifiers, if they
    passed it, say, on Aug 1st and then left town on Aug 8th (for Labor Day), >when they got back on Sept 6th, could they re-pass it on Sept 10th? If they >can't re-pass it as-is at any time, what about if they passed it on Dec
    20th and the new congress convenes on Jan 3rd? Can the NEW congress then
    pass it on Jan 5th as-is?

    (3)
    If they can't re-pass it as-is at all, how much changes need to be in it to >allow them to do so? I.e. let's say it was a bill to take 1,000,000 acres
    of land and create a national park and the bill ran 100 pages (they were >tired that day and didn't want to get overly wordy, ya know?) Would having >the exact same text except that it's now 999,999 acres (and a change to the >text for the specifications of the boundary to fit the new size) be enough
    of a change?


    They can absolutely keep passing the same bill over and over, but why would they? If they know they don't have the votes, they would just open
    themselves up to criticism as a do-nothing Congress and for wasting taxpayer money. Just remember that every Congressperson who repeatedly casts a
    vote on legislation they know won't be signed has to face re-election and explain to voters why he or she indulged in such a fruitless effort. You do
    it once or twice to get on the record and to attempt to over-ride the president's veto, but after that you move onto other things.

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  • From Rick C@21:1/5 to Rick on Tue Feb 8 15:59:43 2022
    On Tuesday, February 8, 2022 at 4:59:01 PM UTC-5, Rick wrote:
    "Mike Anderson" wrote in message news:stts8k$dkn$1...@dont-email.me...

    https://www.senate.gov/reference/reference_index_subjects/Vetoes_vrd.htm

    "The power of the President to refuse to approve a bill or joint resolution >and thus prevent its enactment into law is the veto. The president has ten >days (excluding Sundays) to sign a bill passed by Congress. A regular veto >occurs when the President returns the legislation to the house in which it >originated, usually with a message explaining the rationale for the veto. >This veto can be overridden only by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate >and the House. If this occurs, the bill becomes law over the President's >objections. A pocket veto occurs when Congress adjourns during the ten-day >period. The president cannot return the bill to Congress. The president's >decision not to sign the legislation is a pocket veto and Congress does not >have the opportunity to override."

    A few things here:

    (1)
    Can Congress re-pass, with no wording at all, a bill that had previously >been vetoed? I.e. could they just keep re-passing a bill that POTUS has >explicitly signed a veto, hoping he will eventually cave and sign it? Or >maybe at the time of the first passing of it, POTUS said "no, because of >XYZ happening right now" but then they wait a month and now XYZ is no >longer happening and they're hoping now POTUS will be more agreeable? Or, >if it was a pocket veto, basically pass it again when they re-convene?

    (2)
    Assuming they can re-pass it as-is, but with some qualifiers, if they >passed it, say, on Aug 1st and then left town on Aug 8th (for Labor Day), >when they got back on Sept 6th, could they re-pass it on Sept 10th? If they >can't re-pass it as-is at any time, what about if they passed it on Dec >20th and the new congress convenes on Jan 3rd? Can the NEW congress then >pass it on Jan 5th as-is?

    (3)
    If they can't re-pass it as-is at all, how much changes need to be in it to >allow them to do so? I.e. let's say it was a bill to take 1,000,000 acres >of land and create a national park and the bill ran 100 pages (they were >tired that day and didn't want to get overly wordy, ya know?) Would having >the exact same text except that it's now 999,999 acres (and a change to the >text for the specifications of the boundary to fit the new size) be enough >of a change?

    They can absolutely keep passing the same bill over and over, but why would they? If they know they don't have the votes, they would just open
    themselves up to criticism as a do-nothing Congress and for wasting taxpayer money. Just remember that every Congressperson who repeatedly casts a
    vote on legislation they know won't be signed has to face re-election and explain to voters why he or she indulged in such a fruitless effort. You do it once or twice to get on the record and to attempt to over-ride the president's veto, but after that you move onto other things.

    As if Congress doesn't do things that slow the process and hamper the running of the country!!! Heck, that idea would apply to the first passage of a bill the President has said would not be signed. Why would repeated passages be any different?

    --

    Rick C.

    - Get 1,000 miles of free Supercharging
    - Tesla referral code - https://ts.la/richard11209

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to All on Tue Feb 8 23:10:58 2022
    "Rick C" wrote in message news:64837110-a59f-4a09-8803-c2fabf2a6ddcn@googlegroups.com...

    On Tuesday, February 8, 2022 at 4:59:01 PM UTC-5, Rick wrote:
    "Mike Anderson" wrote in message news:stts8k$dkn$1...@dont-email.me...

    https://www.senate.gov/reference/reference_index_subjects/Vetoes_vrd.htm

    "The power of the President to refuse to approve a bill or joint
    resolution
    and thus prevent its enactment into law is the veto. The president has
    ten
    days (excluding Sundays) to sign a bill passed by Congress. A regular
    veto
    occurs when the President returns the legislation to the house in which
    it
    originated, usually with a message explaining the rationale for the
    veto.
    This veto can be overridden only by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate
    and the House. If this occurs, the bill becomes law over the President's
    objections. A pocket veto occurs when Congress adjourns during the
    ten-day
    period. The president cannot return the bill to Congress. The
    president's
    decision not to sign the legislation is a pocket veto and Congress does
    not
    have the opportunity to override."

    A few things here:

    (1)
    Can Congress re-pass, with no wording at all, a bill that had previously
    been vetoed? I.e. could they just keep re-passing a bill that POTUS has
    explicitly signed a veto, hoping he will eventually cave and sign it? Or
    maybe at the time of the first passing of it, POTUS said "no, because of
    XYZ happening right now" but then they wait a month and now XYZ is no
    longer happening and they're hoping now POTUS will be more agreeable?
    Or,
    if it was a pocket veto, basically pass it again when they re-convene?

    (2)
    Assuming they can re-pass it as-is, but with some qualifiers, if they
    passed it, say, on Aug 1st and then left town on Aug 8th (for Labor
    Day),
    when they got back on Sept 6th, could they re-pass it on Sept 10th? If
    they
    can't re-pass it as-is at any time, what about if they passed it on Dec
    20th and the new congress convenes on Jan 3rd? Can the NEW congress then
    pass it on Jan 5th as-is?

    (3)
    If they can't re-pass it as-is at all, how much changes need to be in it
    to
    allow them to do so? I.e. let's say it was a bill to take 1,000,000
    acres
    of land and create a national park and the bill ran 100 pages (they were
    tired that day and didn't want to get overly wordy, ya know?) Would
    having
    the exact same text except that it's now 999,999 acres (and a change to
    the
    text for the specifications of the boundary to fit the new size) be
    enough
    of a change?

    They can absolutely keep passing the same bill over and over, but why
    would
    they? If they know they don't have the votes, they would just open
    themselves up to criticism as a do-nothing Congress and for wasting
    taxpayer
    money. Just remember that every Congressperson who repeatedly casts a
    vote on legislation they know won't be signed has to face re-election and
    explain to voters why he or she indulged in such a fruitless effort. You
    do
    it once or twice to get on the record and to attempt to over-ride the
    president's veto, but after that you move onto other things.

    As if Congress doesn't do things that slow the process and hamper the
    running of the country!!! Heck, that idea would apply to the first passage >of a bill the President has said would not be signed. Why would repeated >passages be any different?


    The first time they vote, they do it to get on the record and in the hope
    the president will face public pressure and sign. When the president vetos
    the bill, they try again, again to get on the record, and this time in the
    hope that some Members will have changed their mind. Once that vote fails, there is usually no point in scheduling another vote unless circumstances change or the president now indicates a willingness to sign the vote. At
    that point, repeatedly voting for a bill they know will be overriden becomes counter-productive and it just doesn't happen.

    I've been watching politics for more than 50 years and can't remember any
    case where Congress repeatedly tried to pass the exact same bill knowing it would be vetoed. Yes, they occasionally revote if changes have been made to the bill or if something major happened to change the public mood, but I've never seen repeated voting several times for the exact same bill that they
    know won't be signed.

    --

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  • From Rick C@21:1/5 to Rick on Wed Feb 9 07:21:08 2022
    On Wednesday, February 9, 2022 at 2:11:01 AM UTC-5, Rick wrote:
    "Rick C" wrote in message
    news:64837110-a59f-4a09...@googlegroups.com...


    As if Congress doesn't do things that slow the process and hamper the >running of the country!!! Heck, that idea would apply to the first passage >of a bill the President has said would not be signed. Why would repeated >passages be any different?

    The first time they vote, they do it to get on the record and in the hope
    the president will face public pressure and sign. When the president vetos the bill, they try again, again to get on the record, and this time in the hope that some Members will have changed their mind. Once that vote fails, there is usually no point in scheduling another vote unless circumstances change or the president now indicates a willingness to sign the vote. At
    that point, repeatedly voting for a bill they know will be overriden becomes counter-productive and it just doesn't happen.

    I've been watching politics for more than 50 years and can't remember any case where Congress repeatedly tried to pass the exact same bill knowing it would be vetoed. Yes, they occasionally revote if changes have been made to the bill or if something major happened to change the public mood, but I've never seen repeated voting several times for the exact same bill that they know won't be signed.

    Politics is about theater as much as anything. Just like a protest march, much of it has to do with making statements. It is very common for the process of passing bills into law being much more about making statements than it is the laws themselves,
    even to the point of obstructing the process. The US Congress is in no way shy about interfering with the process of making laws. Ever hear of the filibuster? The only function of the filibuster is to prevent any further action by the Senate. Getting
    rid of it is being discussed in a way that makes it appear almost holy.

    It is not unusual to pass a bill that the President has said he would veto. The bill is passed not to create a law, but to make a statement. When members of Congress feel strongly enough passing the exact same bill again would make an even stronger
    statement.

    When you say this has not happened, it is not relevant to the question I asked, "Why would repeated passages be any different?"

    --

    Rick C.

    + Get 1,000 miles of free Supercharging
    + Tesla referral code - https://ts.la/richard11209

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  • From Rick@21:1/5 to All on Wed Feb 9 10:03:38 2022
    "Rick C" wrote in message news:ebb957b6-f6a1-4667-be58-293ec8f001bdn@googlegroups.com...

    On Wednesday, February 9, 2022 at 2:11:01 AM UTC-5, Rick wrote:
    "Rick C" wrote in message
    news:64837110-a59f-4a09...@googlegroups.com...


    As if Congress doesn't do things that slow the process and hamper the
    running of the country!!! Heck, that idea would apply to the first
    passage
    of a bill the President has said would not be signed. Why would repeated
    passages be any different?

    The first time they vote, they do it to get on the record and in the hope
    the president will face public pressure and sign. When the president
    vetos
    the bill, they try again, again to get on the record, and this time in
    the
    hope that some Members will have changed their mind. Once that vote
    fails,
    there is usually no point in scheduling another vote unless circumstances
    change or the president now indicates a willingness to sign the vote. At
    that point, repeatedly voting for a bill they know will be overriden
    becomes
    counter-productive and it just doesn't happen.

    I've been watching politics for more than 50 years and can't remember any
    case where Congress repeatedly tried to pass the exact same bill knowing
    it
    would be vetoed. Yes, they occasionally revote if changes have been made
    to
    the bill or if something major happened to change the public mood, but
    I've
    never seen repeated voting several times for the exact same bill that
    they
    know won't be signed.

    Politics is about theater as much as anything. Just like a protest march, >much of it has to do with making statements. It is very common for the >process of passing bills into law being much more about making statements >than it is the laws themselves, even to the point of obstructing the
    process. The US Congress is in no way shy about interfering with the
    process of making laws. Ever hear of the filibuster? The only function of >the filibuster is to prevent any further action by the Senate. Getting rid >of it is being discussed in a way that makes it appear almost holy.

    It is not unusual to pass a bill that the President has said he would veto. >The bill is passed not to create a law, but to make a statement. When >members of Congress feel strongly enough passing the exact same bill again >would make an even stronger statement.

    When you say this has not happened, it is not relevant to the question I >asked, "Why would repeated passages be any different?"


    It's different for this reason. The first time you pass a bill you know
    won't be approved, you've at least made a statement and put your views on
    the record, and you got points for that. The issue you voted on gets
    public attention and that's what you want.

    But when you repeat the process and vote over and over again for a bill you know won't be signed, then the discussion changes. Instead of being about
    the original issue, it becomes about the futility of a Congress voting repeatedly for a bill that won't be approved. The bill itself fades from public attention and the focus now is on your inefficiency as a Congress and how you are wasting public dollars by repeatedly voting for a bill that
    can't pass. The issue changes in the public mind and you lose points for
    that.

    I believe THAT is the reason you don't see this being done.

    --

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  • From Mike Anderson@21:1/5 to Rick on Wed Feb 9 13:40:13 2022
    On 2/8/2022 4:58 PM, Rick wrote:
    "Mike Anderson"  wrote in message news:stts8k$dkn$1@dont-email.me...

    https://www.senate.gov/reference/reference_index_subjects/Vetoes_vrd.htm

    "The power of the President to refuse to approve a bill or joint
    resolution and thus prevent its enactment into law is the veto. The
    president has ten days (excluding Sundays) to sign a bill passed by
    Congress. A regular veto occurs when the President returns the
    legislation to the house in which it originated, usually with a
    message explaining the rationale for the veto. This veto can be
    overridden only by a two-thirds vote in both the Senate and the House.
    If this occurs, the bill becomes law over the President's objections.
    A pocket veto occurs when Congress adjourns during the ten-day period.
    The president cannot return the bill to Congress. The president's
    decision not to sign the legislation is a pocket veto and Congress
    does not have the opportunity to override."

    A few things here:

    (1)
    Can Congress re-pass, with no wording at all, a bill that had
    previously been vetoed? I.e. could they just keep re-passing a bill
    that POTUS has explicitly signed a veto, hoping he will eventually
    cave and sign it? Or maybe at the time of the first passing of it,
    POTUS said "no, because of XYZ happening right now" but then they wait
    a month and now XYZ is no longer happening and they're hoping now
    POTUS will be more agreeable? Or, if it was a pocket veto, basically
    pass it again when they re-convene?

    (2)
    Assuming they can re-pass it as-is, but with some qualifiers, if they
    passed it, say, on Aug 1st and then left town on Aug 8th (for Labor
    Day), when they got back on Sept 6th, could they re-pass it on Sept
    10th? If they can't re-pass it as-is at any time, what about if they
    passed it on Dec 20th and the new congress convenes on Jan 3rd? Can
    the NEW congress then pass it on Jan 5th as-is?

    (3)
    If they can't re-pass it as-is at all, how much changes need to be in
    it to allow them to do so? I.e. let's say it was a bill to take
    1,000,000 acres of land and create a national park and the bill ran
    100 pages (they were tired that day and didn't want to get overly
    wordy, ya know?) Would having the exact same text except that it's now
    999,999 acres (and a change to the text for the specifications of the
    boundary to fit the new size) be enough of a change?


    They can absolutely keep passing the same bill over and over, but why
    would they?  If they know they don't have the votes, they would just
    open themselves up to criticism as a do-nothing Congress and for wasting taxpayer money.    Just remember that every Congressperson who
    repeatedly casts a vote on legislation they know won't be signed has to
    face re-election and explain to voters why he or she indulged in such a fruitless effort.  You do it once or twice to get on the record and to attempt to over-ride the president's veto, but after that you move onto
    other things.

    It was more a hypothetical "*could* they pull the child-like 'ask the
    same thing over and over in hopes that the parent will eventually tire
    of it and give in'?" than any expectation that they *would* do so.

    Yes, if they pass it once, the president expressly vetoes it and they
    fail to override it, it's probably stupid to try passing it again (so it
    was a "can they?" and not a "will they?" or "should they?" question.)
    But if the president pocket-vetoes it, I could see one second try
    possibly being worth trying. Or if they don't manage the override but it
    misses the 2/3 mark by one vote, maybe passing it again with that
    "2/3rds minus 1" on the record is enough of a message to get the
    president to go ahead and sign it. Or (as mentioned in the question) if
    some time passes, like a couple of years or even just a new session of Congress, and circumstances changed, maybe they figure they now have a
    shot at getting the president to sign it. But passing it on Feb 1st,
    getting it expressly vetoed on Feb 2nd and then passing it again on Feb
    3rd *would* definitely be political suicide, even if it can be legally done.

    Then again, people often don't seem to realize "just because you CAN, it doesn't mean you SHOULD."

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