• Some recent (Prince Andrew) legal Qs

    From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to All on Wed Jan 12 21:38:06 2022
    1) Assuming he chooses not to take the stand, unlike a criminal case, it
    can be held against him ?

    2) If he were to take the stand, would his testimony be subject to
    perjury laws and lay him open to a criminal charge if he was found to be economical with the actualite ?

    3) Assuming judgement is awarded against him, what options are available
    to a US court under any US-UK treaties ?

    I hope these are general enough to not be sub judice :)

    (posting from the land of tyrants :) )

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  • From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to Barry Gold on Thu Jan 13 06:53:24 2022
    On Thu, 13 Jan 2022 06:19:13 -0800, Barry Gold wrote:

    On 1/12/2022 9:38 PM, Jethro_uk wrote:
    1) Assuming he chooses not to take the stand, unlike a criminal case,
    it can be held against him ?

    2) If he were to take the stand, would his testimony be subject to
    perjury laws and lay him open to a criminal charge if he was found to
    be economical with the actualite ?

    3) Assuming judgement is awarded against him, what options are
    available to a US court under any US-UK treaties ?

    I hope these are general enough to not be sub judice :)

    1. Yes. In a civil case, failure to take the stand can be remarked on by
    the opposing lawyer and the jury can take it into consideration.

    2. If he takes the stand and testifies falsely, he would be subject to perjury laws.

    3. If he owns property in the United States, Giuffre can levy against
    it. Whether she can reach property in the UK or elsewhere is an open question.

    Thank you for that - refreshingly waffle-free :)

    This is a big black eye for the Royal Family. I would be surprised if
    they don't settle out of court "for an undisclosed sum", unless Prince
    Andrew has a strong defense. Maybe even if he does.

    If he had a defense, I am sure he would have submitted it by now. So far
    we have a car-crash TV interview from 2019 where his claim to "not be
    able to sweat" caused rather widespread ... ridicule. (And to prove some
    people do remember, the UK media yesterday was full of chatter to the
    effect: "I bet he's ****ing sweating now ....").

    From reading it seems the plaintiff has also asked for proof of this extraordinary claim to be submitted to the court ?

    Thus far the plaintiff has reportedly turned down $5million and has
    reiterated their desire to go to court. It must be a shock for the
    defendant (and his hangers-on) to meet someone they couldn't overawe or
    bully (anymore).

    As a UK republican, anything which hastens the demise of the descendants
    of the tyrant the US so wisely removed is generally a Good Thing.

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 13 06:19:13 2022
    On 1/12/2022 9:38 PM, Jethro_uk wrote:
    1) Assuming he chooses not to take the stand, unlike a criminal case,
    it can be held against him ?

    2) If he were to take the stand, would his testimony be subject to
    perjury laws and lay him open to a criminal charge if he was found to
    be economical with the actualite ?

    3) Assuming judgement is awarded against him, what options are
    available to a US court under any US-UK treaties ?

    I hope these are general enough to not be sub judice :)

    1. Yes. In a civil case, failure to take the stand can be remarked on by
    the opposing lawyer and the jury can take it into consideration.

    2. If he takes the stand and testifies falsely, he would be subject to
    perjury laws.

    3. If he owns property in the United States, Giuffre can levy against
    it. Whether she can reach property in the UK or elsewhere is an open
    question.


    This is a big black eye for the Royal Family. I would be surprised if
    they don't settle out of court "for an undisclosed sum", unless Prince
    Andrew has a strong defense. Maybe even if he does.
    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From David Spencer@21:1/5 to jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com on Thu Jan 13 15:07:13 2022
    Jethro_uk <jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com> writes:

    1) Assuming he chooses not to take the stand, unlike a criminal case, it
    can be held against him ?

    Yes.

    2) If he were to take the stand, would his testimony be subject to
    perjury laws and lay him open to a criminal charge if he was found to be >economical with the actualite ?

    Yes.

    3) Assuming judgement is awarded against him, what options are available
    to a US court under any US-UK treaties ?

    Same as any other civil case: The court can enter a judgment. That's
    it.

    Whether the judgment will be recognized in the UK is a separate
    question.

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    As a general matter, a final, liquidated money judgment that is not
    subject to further appeal establishes a simple debt under UK law. The
    judgment creditor will have to establish that the US court had
    jurisdiction under UK rules, that the judgment was not procured by
    fraud and is not contrary to UK public policy or "natural justice".


    [You aeren't my client, I'm not a UK lawyer, not legal advice, etc, etc]

    --
    dhs spencer@panix.com

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  • From Stuart O. Bronstein@21:1/5 to David Spencer on Fri Jan 14 06:23:10 2022
    David Spencer <spencer@panix.com> wrote:

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    The UK and the US are both signatories to the Hague Convention of
    Enforcement of Judgments.

    https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=137

    --
    Stu
    http://DownToEarthLawyer.com

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  • From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to Stuart O. Bronstein on Fri Jan 14 06:41:39 2022
    On Fri, 14 Jan 2022 06:23:10 -0800, Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:

    David Spencer <spencer@panix.com> wrote:

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    The UK and the US are both signatories to the Hague Convention of
    Enforcement of Judgments.

    https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=137

    I wouldn't rely on that these days. The UK is a bit pick'n'mix when it
    comes to international treaties.

    At this point I'm curious about the process of identifying and seizing
    any assets the defendant might have in the US. Would a US court order be sufficient for a UK court to assist in the matter ?

    It would be inconceivable that someone of his standing would not have a
    myriad of disparate investments - probably unknown even to themselves in detail. So some could well be inside the US and under US jurisdiction.

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  • From Stuart O. Bronstein@21:1/5 to jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com on Fri Jan 14 07:17:26 2022
    Jethro_uk <jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com> wrote:
    Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:
    David Spencer <spencer@panix.com> wrote:

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    The UK and the US are both signatories to the Hague Convention of
    Enforcement of Judgments.

    https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=137

    I wouldn't rely on that these days. The UK is a bit pick'n'mix
    when it comes to international treaties.

    At this point I'm curious about the process of identifying and
    seizing any assets the defendant might have in the US. Would a US
    court order be sufficient for a UK court to assist in the matter ?

    It would be inconceivable that someone of his standing would not
    have a myriad of disparate investments - probably unknown even to
    themselves in detail. So some could well be inside the US and
    under US jurisdiction.

    The way it normally works is that, when you have a court order from
    one jurisdiction, you take it to another jurisdiction and you file a
    lawsuit there, based on the judgment. The only issue in that case
    will be whether you have a valid judgment from the other
    jurisdiction. So it's not a trivial exercise - on occasion (but not
    often) a court will decide that, for some reason, the other court's
    judgment isn't valid and won't be enforced.

    In the US this process has to be done in every state where a
    defendant has assets. But it's a bit easier than at the
    international level, because in the US each state is required to give
    "full faith and credit" to the laws and judgments of every other
    state.

    But that doesn't mean that the judgement of one state is always
    recognized by the courts of another state. See the famous cases of
    Williams v. North Carolina:

    https://dspace2.creighton.edu/xmlui/bitstream/handle/10504/40270/17_ 32CreightonLRev187(1998-1999).pdf?sequence=1


    --
    Stu
    http://DownToEarthLawyer.com

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  • From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to Stuart O. Bronstein on Fri Jan 14 07:24:11 2022
    On Fri, 14 Jan 2022 07:17:26 -0800, Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:

    Jethro_uk <jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com> wrote:
    Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:
    David Spencer <spencer@panix.com> wrote:

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    The UK and the US are both signatories to the Hague Convention of
    Enforcement of Judgments.

    https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=137

    I wouldn't rely on that these days. The UK is a bit pick'n'mix when it
    comes to international treaties.

    At this point I'm curious about the process of identifying and seizing
    any assets the defendant might have in the US. Would a US court order
    be sufficient for a UK court to assist in the matter ?

    It would be inconceivable that someone of his standing would not have a
    myriad of disparate investments - probably unknown even to themselves
    in detail. So some could well be inside the US and under US
    jurisdiction.

    The way it normally works is that, when you have a court order from one jurisdiction, you take it to another jurisdiction and you file a lawsuit there, based on the judgment. The only issue in that case will be
    whether you have a valid judgment from the other jurisdiction. So it's
    not a trivial exercise - on occasion (but not often) a court will decide that, for some reason, the other court's judgment isn't valid and won't
    be enforced.

    In the US this process has to be done in every state where a defendant
    has assets. But it's a bit easier than at the international level,
    because in the US each state is required to give "full faith and credit"
    to the laws and judgments of every other state.

    But that doesn't mean that the judgement of one state is always
    recognized by the courts of another state. See the famous cases of
    Williams v. North Carolina:

    https://dspace2.creighton.edu/xmlui/bitstream/handle/10504/40270/17_ 32CreightonLRev187(1998-1999).pdf?sequence=1

    Fascinating, thank you.

    Another day I end knowing that tiny bit more than I started :)

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  • From John Levine@21:1/5 to All on Fri Jan 14 14:21:43 2022
    According to Jethro_uk <jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com>:
    On Fri, 14 Jan 2022 06:23:10 -0800, Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:

    David Spencer <spencer@panix.com> wrote:

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    The UK and the US are both signatories to the Hague Convention of
    Enforcement of Judgments.

    https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=137

    I wouldn't rely on that these days. The UK is a bit pick'n'mix when it
    comes to international treaties.

    The US has a law that forbids domesticating foreign libel judgements
    unless the plaintiff can show that the case would have been won under
    US free speech law, specifically aimed at UK libel tourism.

    I could imagine the current UK government saying well, if you don't
    like our laws, we don't like yours.

    --
    Regards,
    John Levine, johnl@taugh.com, Primary Perpetrator of "The Internet for Dummies",
    Please consider the environment before reading this e-mail. https://jl.ly

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  • From David Spencer@21:1/5 to Stuart O. Bronstein on Fri Jan 14 22:25:36 2022
    "Stuart O. Bronstein" <spamtrap@lexregia.com> writes:

    David Spencer <spencer@panix.com> wrote:

    The UK does not have a treaty on recognition of US judgments.

    The UK and the US are both signatories to the Hague Convention of
    Enforcement of Judgments.

    No, they aren't. As your link shows.

    https://www.hcch.net/en/instruments/conventions/full-text/?cid=137

    "Not yet in force."

    --
    dhs spencer@panix.com

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  • From Jethro_uk@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 27 07:52:24 2022
    On Wed, 12 Jan 2022 21:38:06 -0800, Jethro_uk wrote:

    1) Assuming he chooses not to take the stand, unlike a criminal case, it
    can be held against him ?

    2) If he were to take the stand, would his testimony be subject to
    perjury laws and lay him open to a criminal charge if he was found to be economical with the actualite ?

    3) Assuming judgement is awarded against him, what options are available
    to a US court under any US-UK treaties ?

    I hope these are general enough to not be sub judice :)

    (posting from the land of tyrants :) )

    The latest news is that Mr. Windsor is seeking a jury trial in this case.

    4) Is this possible ?

    5) Would he be able to appear remotely, or would the court be able to
    mandate his presence before proceeding ?

    6) Does this move require the plaintiffs side to provide some sort of
    surety in the event they lose to cover any costs (which might act as a potential barrier to progress).

    7) With respect to the photograph of the plaintiff and Mr. Windsor. Does
    the court require Mr. Windsor to "recognize" it in order for it to be
    accepted. Or does res ipsos loquitor :) ?

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  • From John Levine@21:1/5 to All on Thu Jan 27 10:36:36 2022
    According to Jethro_uk <jethro_uk@hotmailbin.com>:
    The latest news is that Mr. Windsor is seeking a jury trial in this case.

    4) Is this possible ?

    Sure. He may be a prince in the UK and Canada, but here he's just the defendant.
    See the US Constitution, Art I, Section 9.

    5) Would he be able to appear remotely, or would the court be able to
    mandate his presence before proceeding ?

    It's up to the judge but given the seriousness of the case, I would
    expect the court to order him to show up. Actually getting him to do
    so if he is in the UK might be interesting.

    6) Does this move require the plaintiffs side to provide some sort of
    surety in the event they lose to cover any costs (which might act as a >potential barrier to progress).

    No, in the US system each side pays its own costs. You don't have to tell
    us why that is a bad idea, but it's how we do it.

    7) With respect to the photograph of the plaintiff and Mr. Windsor. Does
    the court require Mr. Windsor to "recognize" it in order for it to be >accepted. Or does res ipsos loquitor :) ?

    It appeared in court documents in a previous case so I do not think there
    is any question whether it is genuine.

    --
    Regards,
    John Levine, johnl@taugh.com, Primary Perpetrator of "The Internet for Dummies",
    Please consider the environment before reading this e-mail. https://jl.ly

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