If a politician in active campaigning mode, by some means whether intentionally dishonest or a genuine misunderstanding suggests in a "publication" (covering TV, internet etc) that a specifically named individual who has celebrity in their own right has somehow "endorsed"
their campaign in any degree, could an offense have been committed ?
Being a non lawyer (with a lifestyle to match) I can only think that the independent celebrity could argue that the claimed association is in some
way defamatory ? With all that entails.
If we remove the celebrity element, could an ordinary citizen also pursue remedy ? Say their image was used without their permission to suggest
they endorse a particular candidate.
If a politician in active campaigning mode, by some means whether intentionally dishonest or a genuine misunderstanding suggests in a "publication" (covering TV, internet etc) that a specifically named individual who has celebrity in their own right has somehow "endorsed"
their campaign in any degree, could an offense have been committed ?
Being a non lawyer (with a lifestyle to match) I can only think that
the independent celebrity could argue that the claimed association is
in some way defamatory ? With all that entails. (Cease and desist and
all that). Would they be able to use the legal system to cause the
offending campaigner to withdraw their remarks and make restitution ?
If we remove the celebrity element, could an ordinary citizen also
pursue remedy ? Say their image was used without their permission to
suggest they endorse a particular candidate.
On Tue, 20 Aug 2024 08:31:42 -0700 (PDT), Jethro_uk wrote:
If a politician in active campaigning mode, by some means whether
intentionally dishonest or a genuine misunderstanding suggests in a
"publication" (covering TV, internet etc) that a specifically named
individual who has celebrity in their own right has somehow "endorsed"
their campaign in any degree, could an offense have been committed ?
Being a non lawyer (with a lifestyle to match) I can only think that the
independent celebrity could argue that the claimed association is in some
way defamatory ? With all that entails.
It would depend on the facts of the case, including the type of
celebrity, and whether an ordinary person could reasonably believe
that the candidate was being endorsed.
The bar for an action in libel or slander is pretty high when the
plaintiff is a public figure. The plaintiff must show "actual
malice", a term of art that means the defendant either knew that the statements in question were false or acted in reckless disregard of
whether they were true or false. (New York Times Co. v. Sullivan, 376
U.S. 254 (1964))
If we remove the celebrity element, could an ordinary citizen also pursue
remedy ? Say their image was used without their permission to suggest
they endorse a particular candidate.
"Actual malice" is a requirement only when the libelee is a public
figure. While it would turn on the facts either way, a plaintiff who
is not a public figure will find it easier to make a case.
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