• why can't the people shot to death in a case be called "victims"?

    From Mike Anderson@21:1/5 to S K on Fri Mar 12 20:34:33 2021
    On 3/10/2021 12:18 PM, S K wrote:
    On Wednesday, March 10, 2021 at 9:57:36 AM UTC-5, Mike Anderson wrote:
    On 3/3/2021 6:08 PM, S K wrote:
    "deceased" is absurd. they were killed. do many judges refuse to allow the victims in a murder case to be called "victims"?
    I think it's mainly a way to prevent prejudicing the jury. I.e. the DA
    saying in his opening or closing statement "I will prove/have proved
    that the defendant shot the victim" is more prejudicial than "I will
    prove/have proved that the defendant shot the deceased" (using the word
    "victim" makes the jury more ready to assume that there was actually a
    crime without even yet hearing/seeing any evidence where-as using the
    word "deceased" allows for the shooting to be accidental or self-defense
    and makes the DA have to actually present evidence showing otherwise.)

    Think of it as a lesser case of implying the conclusion. "Have you
    stopped beating your wife?" If you don't even *HAVE* a wife, you
    couldn't have been beating her in the first place but the way the
    question is posed implies that not only do you have a wife but that you
    did beat her at least once at some time in the past. Saying "the victim"
    preassumes the conclusion that there was a crime ("No crime? No
    victim.") without yet showing the evidence for it.

    If natural death/suicide is ruled out - the deceased is nothing if not a victim.

    The deceased *IS* the victim of an untimely death, yes. But did the
    defendant illegally cause it? That's the question that can become
    prejudicially influenced. If it's a case of self-defense, you still have
    a "victim" but the deceased was a victim of his own actions, not the defendant's (and thus no crime.) What about something that was
    definitely accidental? That's not "natural causes" but again, no crime.

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