• can a false charge of homosexuality lead to a defamation lawsuit?

    From S K@21:1/5 to All on Sat Nov 5 20:54:27 2022
    All those folk who said in writing that the Paul Pelosi brouhaha was a gay tryst gone wrong, can they be sued?

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  • From Elle N@21:1/5 to All on Sun Nov 6 07:26:13 2022
    My take:
    Mr. Pelosi could sue for defamation (or even defamation per se)
    but would not be likely to prevail. Why? Because proving one is
    not gay is a high standard to meet; because the Pelosis likely
    feel that being called "gay" is not derisive and so might laugh
    at the suggestion he is gay and then, not sue; because Mr. Pelosi
    is likely, by one standard or another, a public figure and so the bar he
    would have to meet to prove defamation is higher than if he were not
    a public figure.

    A little help from California law (if Mr. Pelosi sued in California): https://www.justia.com/trials-litigation/docs/caci/1700/1700/

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to S K on Sun Nov 6 07:19:47 2022
    On 11/5/2022 8:54 PM, S K wrote:
    All those folk who said in writing that the Paul Pelosi brouhaha was a gay tryst gone wrong, can they be sued?

    60 years ago that would have been cause for a libel suit. In fact, it
    would have been libel per se, because homosexual sex was a crime, "Sodomy".

    Nowadays, I doubt you could prove any damages from such an accusation,
    and it's certainly not libel per se(*).

    (*) In which you don't have to prove damages, they are assumed.

    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From Stuart O. Bronstein@21:1/5 to Elle N on Sun Nov 6 09:17:40 2022
    Elle N <honda.lioness@gmail.com> wrote:

    My take:
    Mr. Pelosi could sue for defamation (or even defamation per se)
    but would not be likely to prevail. Why? Because proving one is
    not gay is a high standard to meet; because the Pelosis likely
    feel that being called "gay" is not derisive and so might laugh
    at the suggestion he is gay and then, not sue; because Mr. Pelosi
    is likely, by one standard or another, a public figure and so the
    bar he would have to meet to prove defamation is higher than if he
    were not a public figure.

    A little help from California law (if Mr. Pelosi sued in
    California):
    https://www.justia.com/trials-litigation/docs/caci/1700/1700/

    The accusation that he is gay is not the primary grounds for a
    defamation suit. That includes the accusation that he would cheat on
    his wife, the accusation that he actually knew the attacker and had
    something to do with the reason he was attacked, and that the attack
    was not at all based on anything political, those are the things
    that, to me, make it defamation.

    And the reason for the accusations was not just idle talk - it was
    based on the intention and had the purpose of influencing an
    election. I'm not a defamation specialist, but it seems to me that
    should be sufficient to win at least nominal damages if not
    significant punitive damages.

    --
    Stu
    http://DownToEarthLawyer.com

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to Stuart O. Bronstein on Sun Nov 6 20:38:15 2022
    On 11/6/2022 9:17 AM, Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:
    And the reason for the accusations was not just idle talk - it was
    based on the intention and had the purpose of influencing an
    election. I'm not a defamation specialist, but it seems to me that
    should be sufficient to win at least nominal damages if not
    significant punitive damages.

    No. Statements made for the purpose of winning an election are political speech, and that can never be the basis for damages in a defamation
    suit. You need to prove that you lost (or failed to get) a job, a
    promotion, that you lost sales, some actual monetary loss.

    Or you could go for intentional or negligent infliction of emotional
    distress, but I doubt that Mr. Pelosi was distressed about something
    like that. More like, "You've got to be kidding". Maybe he could sue for injuries sustained while rolling around on the floor laughing so hard he strained his diaphragm.

    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From micky@21:1/5 to Stuart O. Bronstein on Sun Nov 6 20:46:28 2022
    In misc.legal.moderated, on Sun, 6 Nov 2022 09:17:40 -0800 (PST),
    "Stuart O. Bronstein" <spamtrap@lexregia.com> wrote:

    Elle N <honda.lioness@gmail.com> wrote:

    My take:
    Mr. Pelosi could sue for defamation (or even defamation per se)
    but would not be likely to prevail. Why? Because proving one is
    not gay is a high standard to meet; because the Pelosis likely
    feel that being called "gay" is not derisive and so might laugh
    at the suggestion he is gay and then, not sue; because Mr. Pelosi
    is likely, by one standard or another, a public figure and so the
    bar he would have to meet to prove defamation is higher than if he
    were not a public figure.

    A little help from California law (if Mr. Pelosi sued in
    California):
    https://www.justia.com/trials-litigation/docs/caci/1700/1700/

    The accusation that he is gay is not the primary grounds for a
    defamation suit. That includes the accusation that he would cheat on
    his wife, the accusation that he actually knew the attacker and had
    something to do with the reason he was attacked, and that the attack
    was not at all based on anything political, those are the things
    that, to me, make it defamation.

    And the reason for the accusations was not just idle talk - it was
    based on the intention and had the purpose of influencing an
    election. I'm not a defamation specialist, but it seems to me that
    should be sufficient to win at least nominal damages if not
    significant punitive damages.

    And, assuming what I'm sure is true, that Mr. Pelosi is awake, and
    assuming he signed a complaint or statement to the police, which seems
    very likely since so many details are known now, the accusastion also
    includes that he has filed a false police report, and that is a crime.

    Therefore, libel per se.

    I suspect he has better things to do with his time, but I wish he would
    do it.

    --
    I think you can tell, but just to be sure:
    I am not a lawyer.

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  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to micky on Mon Nov 7 07:34:26 2022
    On 11/6/2022 8:46 PM, micky wrote:
    In misc.legal.moderated, on Sun, 6 Nov 2022 09:17:40 -0800 (PST),
    "Stuart O. Bronstein" <spamtrap@lexregia.com> wrote:

    Elle N <honda.lioness@gmail.com> wrote:

    My take:
    Mr. Pelosi could sue for defamation (or even defamation per se)
    but would not be likely to prevail. Why? Because proving one is
    not gay is a high standard to meet; because the Pelosis likely
    feel that being called "gay" is not derisive and so might laugh
    at the suggestion he is gay and then, not sue; because Mr. Pelosi
    is likely, by one standard or another, a public figure and so the
    bar he would have to meet to prove defamation is higher than if he
    were not a public figure.

    A little help from California law (if Mr. Pelosi sued in
    California):
    https://www.justia.com/trials-litigation/docs/caci/1700/1700/

    The accusation that he is gay is not the primary grounds for a
    defamation suit. That includes the accusation that he would cheat on
    his wife, the accusation that he actually knew the attacker and had
    something to do with the reason he was attacked, and that the attack
    was not at all based on anything political, those are the things
    that, to me, make it defamation.

    And the reason for the accusations was not just idle talk - it was
    based on the intention and had the purpose of influencing an
    election. I'm not a defamation specialist, but it seems to me that
    should be sufficient to win at least nominal damages if not
    significant punitive damages.

    And, assuming what I'm sure is true, that Mr. Pelosi is awake, and
    assuming he signed a complaint or statement to the police, which seems
    very likely since so many details are known now, the accusastion also includes that he has filed a false police report, and that is a crime.

    Therefore, libel per se.

    I suspect he has better things to do with his time, but I wish he would
    do it.

    Have you ever heard of the term "turnip"?



    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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  • From Stuart O. Bronstein@21:1/5 to Barry Gold on Mon Nov 7 07:33:26 2022
    Barry Gold <bgold@labcats.org> wrote:
    Stuart O. Bronstein wrote:

    And the reason for the accusations was not just idle talk - it
    was based on the intention and had the purpose of influencing an
    election. I'm not a defamation specialist, but it seems to me
    that should be sufficient to win at least nominal damages if not
    significant punitive damages.

    No. Statements made for the purpose of winning an election are
    political speech, and that can never be the basis for damages in a
    defamation suit. You need to prove that you lost (or failed to
    get) a job, a promotion, that you lost sales, some actual monetary
    loss.

    Knowingly making a defamatory statement about someone is not
    privileged just because it's said as a part of an election campaign.
    You're right, the real issue is damages. And on occasion courts do
    issue judgments for nominal damages (e.g. $1) when financial damages
    can't be determine.

    Or you could go for intentional or negligent infliction of
    emotional distress, but I doubt that Mr. Pelosi was distressed
    about something like that. More like, "You've got to be kidding".
    Maybe he could sue for injuries sustained while rolling around on
    the floor laughing so hard he strained his diaphragm.

    The distress doesn't come from how the victim feels about the
    particular accusation. It comes from having millions of people
    actually thinking he'd cheat on his wife with a gay lover.

    --
    Stu
    http://DownToEarthLawyer.com

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  • From micky@21:1/5 to Gold on Mon Nov 7 20:29:55 2022
    In misc.legal.moderated, on Mon, 7 Nov 2022 07:34:26 -0800 (PST), Barry
    Gold <bgold@labcats.org> wrote:

    On 11/6/2022 8:46 PM, micky wrote:
    In misc.legal.moderated, on Sun, 6 Nov 2022 09:17:40 -0800 (PST),
    "Stuart O. Bronstein" <spamtrap@lexregia.com> wrote:

    Elle N <honda.lioness@gmail.com> wrote:

    My take:
    Mr. Pelosi could sue for defamation (or even defamation per se)
    but would not be likely to prevail. Why? Because proving one is
    not gay is a high standard to meet; because the Pelosis likely
    feel that being called "gay" is not derisive and so might laugh
    at the suggestion he is gay and then, not sue; because Mr. Pelosi
    is likely, by one standard or another, a public figure and so the
    bar he would have to meet to prove defamation is higher than if he
    were not a public figure.

    A little help from California law (if Mr. Pelosi sued in
    California):
    https://www.justia.com/trials-litigation/docs/caci/1700/1700/

    The accusation that he is gay is not the primary grounds for a
    defamation suit. That includes the accusation that he would cheat on
    his wife, the accusation that he actually knew the attacker and had
    something to do with the reason he was attacked, and that the attack
    was not at all based on anything political, those are the things
    that, to me, make it defamation.

    And the reason for the accusations was not just idle talk - it was
    based on the intention and had the purpose of influencing an
    election. I'm not a defamation specialist, but it seems to me that
    should be sufficient to win at least nominal damages if not
    significant punitive damages.

    And, assuming what I'm sure is true, that Mr. Pelosi is awake, and
    assuming he signed a complaint or statement to the police, which seems
    very likely since so many details are known now, the accusastion also
    includes that he has filed a false police report, and that is a crime.

    Therefore, libel per se.

    I suspect he has better things to do with his time, but I wish he would
    do it.

    Have you ever heard of the term "turnip"?

    Not in this context, no.

    --
    I think you can tell, but just to be sure:
    I am not a lawyer.

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    * Origin: fsxNet Usenet Gateway (21:1/5)
  • From Barry Gold@21:1/5 to micky on Tue Nov 8 07:32:48 2022
    On 11/7/2022 8:29 PM, micky wrote:
    Have you ever heard of the term "turnip"?
    Not in this context, no.

    As in "You can't get blood from a turnip". Somebody who has no salable
    assets and either no traceable income or only retirement income (usually
    exempt from attachment).

    Also:
    * homeless people
    * someone who is living with their parents and supported by them

    --
    I do so have a memory. It's backed up on DVD... somewhere...

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