From hironori@21:1/5 to All on Sat Oct 10 06:08:25 2020
Because when he compose a charter, the scribe uses manducare or comedere, in order to translate the French nicknames like “mange home”, “mange paysan” into latin For the moment put aside the problem if a man eats another one. Scribes use often
manducare: only one case of usage of comedere. The zone of usage of these two latin is separate. Comedere has a lot of usage, but manducare has only one, namely to eat. In the charters one meets very often the nickname manducare hominem.That is really
cannivals. But if one use the verbe comedere, as you know, one can see some exemples like comedere hominem. That phrase had a different meaning. Many scholars cannot resolve this problem. Because they consult only the charters where the verbe manducare
is used. Let’s return the the start. Why in France the berbe manducre is preferred, not comedere, not edere ? Secondarlly in the ancient roman society which one was more often used, manducare or comedere, without the verbe popular edere ?